Virginia Alarm & Security Licensing Law

Virginia Code · 55 sections

The following is the full text of Virginia’s alarm & security licensing law statutes as published in the Virginia Code. For the official version, see the Virginia Legislature.

Va. Code § 15.2-1716.1

§ 15.2-1716.1. Reimbursement of expenses incurred in responding to terrorism hoax incident, bomb threat, or malicious activation of fire alarm.Any locality may provide by ordinance that any person who is convicted of a violation of subsection B or C of § 18.2-46.6, a felony violation of § 18.2-83 or 18.2-84, or a violation of § 18.2-212 or 18.2-461.1, when his violation of such section is the proximate cause of any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable at the time of sentencing or in a separate civil action to the locality, the Virginia State Police, or any volunteer emergency medical services agency, or any combination thereof, which may provide such emergency response for the reasonable expense thereof, in an amount not to exceed $2,500 in the aggregate for a particular incident occurring in such locality. In determining the "reasonable expense," a locality may bill a flat fee of $250 or a minute-by-minute accounting of the actual costs incurred. As used in this section, "appropriate emergency response" includes all costs of providing law-enforcement, firefighting, and emergency medical services. The provisions of this section shall not preempt or limit any remedy available to the Commonwealth, to the locality, or to any volunteer emergency medical services agency to recover the reasonable expenses of an emergency response to an incident not involving a terroristic hoax or an act undertaken in violation of § 18.2-83, 18.2-84, 18.2-212, or 18.2-461.1 as set forth herein. 2002, cc. 588, 623; 2005, c. 479; 2015, cc. 502, 503; 2016, c. 213; 2017, cc. 98, 519; 2023, cc. 22, 23.

Va. Code § 15.2-911

§ 15.2-911. Regulation of alarm company operators.A. Any locality may by ordinance regulate the installation and maintenance of alarm systems operated by alarm company operators. B. As used in this section: "Alarm company operator" means and includes any business operated for profit, engaged in the installation, maintenance, alteration, or servicing of alarm systems or which responds to such alarm systems. Such term, however, shall not include alarm systems maintained by governmental agencies or departments, nor shall it include a business which merely sells from a fixed location or manufactures alarm systems unless such business services, installs, monitors or responds to alarm systems at the protected premises. "Alarm system" means an assembly of equipment and devices arranged to signal the presence of a hazard requiring urgent attention and to which police or firefighters are expected to respond. Such system may be installed, maintained, altered or serviced by an alarm company operator in both commercial and residential premises. "Battery-charged fence security system" means a system intended for security that includes a fence, a battery-operated energizer connected to the fence and designed to periodically deliver voltage impulses to the fence, a battery-charging device used exclusively to charge the battery, and any other ancillary components and attached equipment. "Battery-charged fence security system" does not include fencing engineered to exclude or contain deer or livestock. C. 1. Any battery-charged fence security system shall (i) interface with a monitored alarm device in a manner that enables the system to transmit a signal intended to alert the owner or law enforcement; (ii) have an energizer powered by a commercial storage battery that provides not more than 12 volts of direct current and meets the standards set forth in the International Electrotechnical Commission Standard 60335-2-76; (iii) be located behind a nonelectric perimeter fence or wall that is at least five feet tall; (iv) be on property not zoned for residential use; (v) not be taller than 10 feet or two feet taller than the height of the perimeter fence or wall, whichever is taller; (vi) be marked with warning signs posted conspicuously on the fence at 30-foot intervals that state "Warning - Electric Fence"; and (vii) include a mechanism that allows first responders to deactivate the system during an emergency. 2. A locality may require: (i) a person who provides or operates a battery-charged fence security system to comply with this subsection; (ii) a person who provides or operates a battery-charged fence security system to comply with the ministerial requirements of an alarm company operator, including a permit or registration and payment of any accompanying fee, prior to providing or operating such battery-charged fence security system; and (iii) an installer, on completion of a newly installed battery-charged fence security system, to submit to the locality an affidavit that includes the address of the installation, name of the installer, date of the installation, and an affirmation that the criteria in this subsection are satisfied. 3. A locality may inspect a newly installed battery-charged fence security system after receipt of an affidavit to ensure the system meets the requirements of this subsection. If the battery-charged fence security system fails to comply with the criteria set forth in this subsection, the locality may issue a citation describing the specific noncompliance and requiring the battery-charged fence security system to come into compliance within a reasonable period of time. The locality may also impose a penalty not to exceed $500 for the first instance if the battery-charged fence security system is not made compliant within the specified period of time. 4. If a battery-charged fence security system meets the requirements of subdivision 1, then a locality shall not establish or otherwise impose any product, installation, or operational requirements, fees, or approvals for a battery-charged fence security system nor prohibit the use of such a system. 1978, c. 587, § 15.1-28.2; 1997, c. 587; 2022, cc. 43, 44.

Va. Code § 15.2-922

§ 15.2-922. Smoke alarms in certain buildings.A. Any locality, notwithstanding any contrary provision of law, general or special, may by ordinance require that smoke alarms be installed in the following structures or buildings if smoke alarms have not been installed in accordance with the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.): (i) any building containing one or more dwelling units, (ii) any hotel or motel regularly used, offered for, or intended to be used to provide overnight sleeping accommodations for one or more persons, and (iii) any rooming houses regularly used, offered for, or intended to be used to provide overnight sleeping accommodations. Smoke alarms installed pursuant to this section shall be installed only in conformance with the provisions of the Uniform Statewide Building Code and shall be permitted to be either battery operated or AC powered. Such installation shall not require new or additional wiring and shall be maintained in accordance with the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.) and subdivision C 6 of § 36-105, Part III of the Uniform Statewide Building Code. Nothing herein shall be construed to authorize a locality to require the upgrading of any smoke alarms provided by the building code in effect at the time of the last renovation of such building, for which a building permit was required, or as otherwise provided in the Uniform Statewide Building Code. B. The ordinance may require the owner of a rental unit to provide the tenant a certificate that all smoke alarms are present, have been inspected by the owner, his employee, or an independent contractor, and are in good working order. Except for smoke alarms located in public or common areas of multifamily buildings, interim testing, repair, and maintenance of smoke alarms in rented or leased dwelling units shall be the responsibility of the tenant in accordance with § 55.1-1227. 1981, c. 324, § 15.1-29.9; 1984, c. 387; 1990, c. 184; 1997, c. 587; 2011, c. 766; 2018, cc. 41, 81.

Va. Code § 18.2-105.2

§ 18.2-105.2. Manufacture, sale, etc., of devices to shield against electronic detection of shoplifting prohibited; penalty.It shall be unlawful to manufacture, sell, offer for sale, distribute or possess any specially coated or laminated bag or other device primarily designed and intended to shield shoplifted merchandise from detection by an anti-theft electronic alarm sensor, with the intention that the same be used to aid in the shoplifting of merchandise. A violation of this section shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor. 1984, c. 386; 2003, c. 831.

Va. Code § 18.2-212

§ 18.2-212. Calling or summoning emergency medical services vehicle or firefighting apparatus without just cause; maliciously activating fire alarms; venue.A. Any person who without just cause therefor calls or summons, by telephone or otherwise, any emergency medical services vehicle or firefighting apparatus, or any person who maliciously activates a manual or automatic fire alarm in any building, regardless of whether an emergency medical services vehicle or fire apparatus responds or not, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. B. A violation of this section may be prosecuted either in the jurisdiction from which the call or summons was made or in the jurisdiction where the call or summons was received. Code 1950, § 18.1-412; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 75; 1982, c. 502; 2015, cc. 502, 503; 2017, cc. 98, 519.

Va. Code § 18.2-415

§ 18.2-415. Disorderly conduct in public places.A. A person is guilty of disorderly conduct if, with the intent to cause public inconvenience, annoyance, or alarm, or recklessly creating a risk thereof, he: 1. In any street, highway, or public building, or while in or on a public conveyance, or while in a public place engages in conduct having a direct tendency to cause acts of violence by the person or persons at whom, individually, such conduct is directed; 2. Willfully or being intoxicated, whether willfully or not, and whether such intoxication results from self-administered alcohol or other drug of whatever nature, disrupts any funeral, memorial service, or meeting of the governing body of any political subdivision of this Commonwealth or a division or agency thereof, or of any school, literary society, or place of religious worship, if the disruption (i) prevents or interferes with the orderly conduct of the funeral, memorial service, or meeting or (ii) has a direct tendency to cause acts of violence by the person or persons at whom, individually, the disruption is directed; or 3. Willfully or while intoxicated, whether willfully or not, and whether such intoxication results from self-administered alcohol or other drug of whatever nature, disrupts the operation of any school or any activity conducted or sponsored by any school, if the disruption (i) prevents or interferes with the orderly conduct of the operation or activity or (ii) has a direct tendency to cause acts of violence by the person or persons at whom, individually, the disruption is directed. B. The conduct prohibited under subsection A shall not be deemed to include the utterance or display of any words or to include conduct otherwise made punishable under this title. C. The person in charge of any such building, place, conveyance, meeting, operation, or activity may eject therefrom any person who violates any provision of this section, with the aid, if necessary, of any persons who may be called upon for such purpose. D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to any elementary or secondary school student if the disorderly conduct occurred on the property of any elementary or secondary school, on a school bus as defined in § 46.2-100, or at any activity conducted or sponsored by any elementary or secondary school. E. The governing bodies of counties, cities, and towns are authorized to adopt ordinances prohibiting and punishing the acts and conduct prohibited by this section, provided that the punishment fixed therefor shall not exceed that prescribed for a Class 1 misdemeanor. A person violating any provision of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Code 1950, §§ 18.1-239, 18.1-240, 18.1-253.1 through 18.1-253.3; 1960, c. 358; 1968, c. 639; 1969, Ex. Sess., c. 2; 1970, c. 374; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 244; 1990, c. 627; 2006, c. 250; 2020, cc. 199, 355. Article 3. Abusive and Insulting Language.

Va. Code § 18.2-461

§ 18.2-461. Falsely summoning or giving false reports to law-enforcement officials.It shall be unlawful for any person (i) to knowingly give a false report as to the commission of any crime to any law-enforcement official with intent to mislead; (ii) to knowingly, with the intent to mislead a law-enforcement agency, cause another to give a false report to any law-enforcement official by publicly simulating a violation of Chapter 4 (§ 18.2-30 et seq.) or Chapter 5 (§ 18.2-77 et seq.); or (iii) without just cause and with intent to interfere with the operations of any law-enforcement official, to call or summon any law-enforcement official by telephone or other means, including engagement or activation of an automatic emergency alarm. Violation of the provisions of this section shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor. However, if a person intentionally gives a false report as to the commission of any crime to any law-enforcement official, causes another to give a false report to any law-enforcement official, or calls or summons any law-enforcement official against another person because of his race, religious conviction, gender, disability, gender identity, sexual orientation, color, or national origin, the person is guilty of a Class 6 felony. Code 1950, § 18.1-401; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1996, cc. 753, 815; 2019, cc. 471, 498; 2020, Sp. Sess. I, c. 22.

Va. Code § 2.2-3705.2

§ 2.2-3705.2. Exclusions to application of chapter; records relating to public safety.The following information contained in a public record is excluded from the mandatory disclosure provisions of this chapter but may be disclosed by the custodian in his discretion, except where such disclosure is prohibited by law. Redaction of information excluded under this section from a public record shall be conducted in accordance with § 2.2-3704.01. 1. Confidential information, including victim identity, provided to or obtained by staff in a rape crisis center or a program for battered spouses. 2. Information that describes the design, function, operation, or access control features of any security system, whether manual or automated, which is used to control access to or use of any automated data processing or telecommunications system. 3. Information that would disclose the security aspects of a system safety program plan adopted pursuant to Federal Transit Administration regulations by the Commonwealth's designated Rail Fixed Guideway Systems Safety Oversight agency; and information in the possession of such agency, the release of which would jeopardize the success of an ongoing investigation of a rail accident or other incident threatening railway safety. 4. Information concerning security plans and specific assessment components of school safety audits, as provided in § 22.1-279.8. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent the disclosure of information relating to the effectiveness of security plans after (i) any school building or property has been subjected to fire, explosion, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event or (ii) any person on school property has suffered or been threatened with any personal injury. 5. Information concerning the mental health assessment of an individual subject to commitment as a sexually violent predator under Chapter 9 (§ 37.2-900 et seq.) of Title 37.2 held by the Commitment Review Committee; except that in no case shall information identifying the victims of a sexually violent predator be disclosed. 6. Subscriber data provided directly or indirectly by a communications services provider to a public body that operates a 911 or E-911 emergency dispatch system or an emergency notification or reverse 911 system if the data is in a form not made available by the communications services provider to the public generally. Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the disclosure of subscriber data generated in connection with specific calls to a 911 emergency system, where the requester is seeking to obtain public records about the use of the system in response to a specific crime, emergency or other event as to which a citizen has initiated a 911 call. For the purposes of this subdivision: "Communications services provider" means the same as that term is defined in § 58.1-647. "Subscriber data" means the name, address, telephone number, and any other information identifying a subscriber of a communications services provider. 7. Subscriber data collected by a local governing body in accordance with the Enhanced Public Safety Telephone Services Act (§ 56-484.12 et seq.) and other identifying information of a personal, medical, or financial nature provided to a local governing body in connection with a 911 or E-911 emergency dispatch system or an emergency notification or reverse 911 system if such records are not otherwise publicly available. Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the disclosure of subscriber data generated in connection with specific calls to a 911 emergency system, where the requester is seeking to obtain public records about the use of the system in response to a specific crime, emergency or other event as to which a citizen has initiated a 911 call. For the purposes of this subdivision: "Communications services provider" means the same as that term is defined in § 58.1-647. "Subscriber data" means the name, address, telephone number, and any other information identifying a subscriber of a communications services provider. 8. Information held by the Virginia Military Advisory Council or any commission created by executive order for the purpose of studying and making recommendations regarding preventing closure or realignment of federal military and national security installations and facilities located in Virginia and relocation of such facilities to Virginia, or a local or regional military affairs organization appointed by a local governing body, that would (i) reveal strategies under consideration or development by the Council or such commission or organizations to prevent the closure or realignment of federal military installations located in Virginia or the relocation of national security facilities located in Virginia, to limit the adverse economic effect of such realignment, closure, or relocation, or to seek additional tenant activity growth from the Department of Defense or federal government or (ii) disclose trade secrets provided to the Council or such commission or organizations in connection with their work. In order to invoke the trade secret protection provided by clause (ii), the submitting entity shall, in writing and at the time of submission (a) invoke this exclusion, (b) identify with specificity the information for which such protection is sought, and (c) state the reason why such protection is necessary. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent the disclosure of all or part of any record, other than a trade secret that has been specifically identified as required by this subdivision, after the Department of Defense or federal agency has issued a final, unappealable decision, or in the event of litigation, a court of competent jurisdiction has entered a final, unappealable order concerning the closure, realignment, or expansion of the military installation or tenant activities, or the relocation of the national security facility, for which records are sought. 9. Information, as determined by the State Comptroller, that describes the design, function, operation, or implementation of internal controls over the Commonwealth's financial processes and systems, and the assessment of risks and vulnerabilities of those controls, including the annual assessment of internal controls mandated by the State Comptroller, if disclosure of such information would jeopardize the security of the Commonwealth's financial assets. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to authorize the withholding of (i) the name of the public employee, officer, or official as it appears on a purchase card statement or other payment record or (ii) the description of individual purchases. Additionally, records relating to the investigation of and findings concerning the soundness of any fiscal process shall be disclosed in a form that does not compromise internal controls. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the Auditor of Public Accounts or the Joint Legislative Audit and Review Commission from reporting internal control deficiencies discovered during the course of an audit. 10. Information relating to the Statewide Agencies Radio System (STARS) or any other similar local or regional public safety communications system that (i) describes the design, function, programming, operation, or access control features of the overall system, components, structures, individual networks, and subsystems of the STARS or any other similar local or regional communications system or (ii) relates to radio frequencies assigned to or utilized by STARS or any other similar local or regional communications system, code plugs, circuit routing, addressing schemes, talk groups, fleet maps, encryption, or programming maintained by or utilized by STARS or any other similar local or regional public safety communications system. 11. Information concerning a salaried or volunteer Fire/EMS company or Fire/EMS department if disclosure of such information would reveal the telephone numbers for cellular telephones, pagers, or comparable portable communication devices provided to its personnel for use in the performance of their official duties. 12. Information concerning the disaster recovery plans or the evacuation plans in the event of fire, explosion, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event for hospitals and nursing homes regulated by the Board of Health pursuant to Chapter 5 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Title 32.1 provided to the Department of Health. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent the disclosure of information relating to the effectiveness of executed evacuation plans after the occurrence of fire, explosion, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event. 13. Records received by the Department of Criminal Justice Services pursuant to §§ 9.1-184, 22.1-79.4, and 22.1-279.8 or for purposes of evaluating threat assessment teams established by a public institution of higher education pursuant to § 23.1-805 or by a private nonprofit institution of higher education, to the extent such records reveal security plans, walk-through checklists, or vulnerability and threat assessment components. 14. Information contained in (i) engineering, architectural, or construction drawings; (ii) operational, procedural, tactical planning, or training manuals; (iii) staff meeting minutes; or (iv) other records that reveal any of the following, the disclosure of which would jeopardize the safety or security of any person; governmental facility, building, or structure or persons using such facility, building, or structure; or public or private commercial office, multifamily residential, or retail building or its occupants: a. Critical infrastructure information or the location or operation of security equipment and systems of any public building, structure, or information storage facility, including ventilation systems, fire protection equipment, mandatory building emergency equipment or systems, elevators, electrical systems, telecommunications equipment and systems, or utility equipment and systems; b. Vulnerability assessments, information not lawfully available to the public regarding specific cybersecurity threats or vulnerabilities, or security plans and measures of an entity, facility, building structure, information technology system, or software program; c. Surveillance techniques, personnel deployments, alarm or security systems or technologies, or operational or transportation plans or protocols; or d. Interconnectivity, network monitoring, network operation centers, master sites, or systems related to the Statewide Agencies Radio System (STARS) or any other similar local or regional public safety communications system. The same categories of records of any person or entity submitted to a public body for the purpose of antiterrorism response planning or cybersecurity planning or protection may be withheld from disclosure if such person or entity in writing (a) invokes the protections of this subdivision, (b) identifies with specificity the records or portions thereof for which protection is sought, and (c) states with reasonable particularity why the protection of such records from public disclosure is necessary to meet the objective of antiterrorism, cybersecurity planning or protection, or critical infrastructure information security and resilience. Such statement shall be a public record and shall be disclosed upon request. Any public body receiving a request for records excluded under clauses (a) and (b) of this subdivision 14 shall notify the Secretary of Public Safety and Homeland Security or his designee of such request and the response made by the public body in accordance with § 2.2-3704. Nothing in this subdivision 14 shall prevent the disclosure of records relating to (1) the structural or environmental soundness of any such facility, building, or structure or (2) an inquiry into the performance of such facility, building, or structure after it has been subjected to fire, explosion, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event. As used in this subdivision, "critical infrastructure information" means the same as that term is defined in 6 U.S.C. § 671. 15. Information held by the Virginia Commercial Space Flight Authority that is categorized as classified or sensitive but unclassified, including national security, defense, and foreign policy information, provided that such information is exempt under the federal Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. § 552. 1999, cc. 485, 518, 703, 726, 793, 849, 852, 867, 868, 881, § 2.1-342.01; 2000, cc. 66, 237, 382, 400, 430, 583, 589, 592, 594, 618, 632, 657, 720, 932, 933, 947, 1006, 1064; 2001, cc. 288, 518, 844, § 2.2-3705; 2002, cc. 87, 155, 242, 393, 478, 481, 499, 522, 571, 572, 633, 655, 715, 798, 830; 2003, cc. 274, 307, 327, 332, 358, 704, 801, 884, 891, 893, 897, 968; 2004, cc. 398, 482, 690, 770; 2005, c. 410; 2008, c. 721; 2009, c. 418; 2010, c. 672; 2011, cc. 111, 536; 2012, cc. 617, 803, 835; 2013, c. 600; 2015, c. 183; 2016, cc. 554, 620, 716, 717; 2017, c. 778; 2018, cc. 52, 741; 2019, c. 358; 2024, c. 671. This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

Va. Code § 2.2-5514

§ 2.2-5514. Prohibited products and services and required incident reporting.A. As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning: "Cybersecurity information" means information describing or relating to any security system or measure, whether manual or automated, that is used to control access to or use of information technology; security risks, threats, or vulnerabilities involving information technology; or security preparedness, response, or recovery related to information technology. "Cybersecurity information" includes critical infrastructure information and information regarding cybersecurity risks, cybersecurity threats, and incidents, as those terms are defined in 6 U.S.C. § 650. "Public body" means any legislative body; any court of the Commonwealth; any authority, board, bureau, commission, district, or agency of the Commonwealth; any political subdivision of the Commonwealth, including counties, cities, and towns, city councils, boards of supervisors, school boards, planning commissions, and governing boards of institutions of higher education; and other organizations, corporations, or agencies in the Commonwealth supported wholly or principally by public funds. "Public body" includes any committee, subcommittee, or other entity however designated of the public body or formed to advise the public body, including those with private sector or citizen members and corporations organized by the Virginia Retirement System. B. No public body may use, whether directly or through work with or on behalf of another public body, any hardware, software, or services that have been prohibited by the U.S. Department of Homeland Security for use on federal systems. C. Every public body shall report all (i) known incidents that threaten the security of the Commonwealth's data or communications or result in exposure of data protected by federal or state laws and (ii) other incidents compromising the security of the public body's information technology systems with the potential to cause major disruption to normal activities of the public body or other public bodies. Such reports shall be made to the Virginia Fusion Intelligence Center within 24 hours from when the incident was discovered. The Virginia Fusion Intelligence Center shall share such reports with the Chief Information Officer, as described in § 2.2-2005, or his designee at the Virginia Information Technologies Agency, promptly upon receipt. D. No cybersecurity information received by the Virginia Information Technologies Agency (VITA) shall be subject to the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) or the Government Data Collection and Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq.) while in the possession of VITA, neither transferring cybersecurity information to nor sharing cybersecurity information with VITA shall make VITA the custodian of such information for public records purposes. No provision of cybersecurity information to state agencies shall constitute a waiver of any applicable privilege or protection provided by law, including trade secret protection. Persons having access to cybersecurity information maintained by VITA shall keep such information confidential, and no person or agency receiving cybersecurity information from VITA shall release or disseminate such information without prior authorization. The Chief Information Officer, as pursuant to § 2.2-2005, or his designee may authorize publication or disclosure of reports or aggregate cybersecurity information as appropriate. 2019, c. 302; 2022, cc. 626, 627; 2024, c. 503.

Va. Code § 27-11

§ 27-11. Duty of members on alarm of fire or call of a medical emergency.Every member of the fire company shall, upon any alarm of fire or call of a medical emergency, attend according to the ordinances of the county, city, or town, or the bylaws, rules, or regulations of the fire department or the fire company's regulations, and endeavor to extinguish such fire or assist in the medical emergency. Code 1919, § 3123; 1970, c. 187; 2001, c. 142; 2015, cc. 502, 503.

Va. Code § 27-15.1

§ 27-15.1. Authority of chief or other officer in charge when answering alarm; penalty for refusal to obey orders.While any fire department or fire company is in the process of answering an alarm where there is imminent danger or the actual occurrence of fire or explosion or the uncontrolled release of hazardous materials that threaten life or property and returning to the station, the chief or other officer in charge of such fire department or fire company at that time shall have the authority to (i) maintain order at such emergency incident or its vicinity, including the immediate airspace; (ii) direct the actions of the firefighters at the incident; (iii) notwithstanding the provisions of §§ 46.2-888 through 46.2-891, keep bystanders or other persons at a safe distance from the incident and emergency equipment; (iv) facilitate the speedy movement and operation of emergency equipment and firefighters; (v) cause an investigation to be made into the origin and cause of the incident; and (vi) until the arrival of a police officer, direct and control traffic in person or by deputy and facilitate the movement of traffic. The fire chief or other officer in charge shall display his firefighter's badge or other proper means of identification. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, this authority shall extend to the activation of traffic control signals designed to facilitate the safe egress and ingress of emergency equipment at a fire station. Any person or persons refusing to obey the orders of the chief or other officer in charge at that time is guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor. The chief or other officer in charge shall have the power to make arrests for violation of the provisions of this section. The authority granted under the provisions of this section may not be exercised to inhibit or obstruct members of law-enforcement agencies or emergency medical services agencies from performing their normal duties when operating at such emergency incident, nor to conflict with or diminish the lawful authority, duties, and responsibilities of forest wardens, including but not limited to the provisions of Chapter 11 (§ 10.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 10.1. Personnel from the news media, such as the press, radio, and television, when gathering the news may enter at their own risk into the incident area only when the officer in charge has deemed the area safe and only into those areas of the incident that do not, in the opinion of the officer in charge, interfere with the fire department or fire company, firefighters, or emergency medical services personnel dealing with such emergencies, in which case the chief or other officer in charge may order such person from the scene of the emergency incident. 1970, c. 187; 1977, c. 326; 1984, c. 644; 2001, c. 142; 2008, c. 410; 2015, cc. 502, 503; 2017, c. 517.

Va. Code § 27-34.2

§ 27-34.2:1. Police powers of fire marshals.In addition to such other duties as may be prescribed by law, the local fire marshal and those assistants appointed pursuant to § 27-36 designated by the fire marshal shall, if authorized by the governing body of the county, city, or town appointing the local fire marshal, have the same police powers as a sheriff, police officer, or law-enforcement officer. The investigation and prosecution of all offenses involving hazardous materials, fires, fire bombings, bombings, attempts or threats to commit such offenses, false alarms relating to such offenses, and possession and manufacture of explosive devices, substances, and fire bombs shall be the responsibility of the fire marshal or his designee, if authorized by the governing body of the county, city, or town appointing the local fire marshal. The police powers granted in this section shall not be exercised by any local fire marshal or assistant until such person has satisfactorily completed a basic law-enforcement course for fire marshals with police powers, and maintains satisfactory participation in in-service and advanced courses and programs, designed by the Department of Fire Programs in cooperation with the Department of Criminal Justice Services, which course shall be approved by the Virginia Fire Services Board. Current or prior certification as a law-enforcement officer, who retired or resigned from his position as a law-enforcement officer in good standing, may satisfy the police powers training requirements upon successful review to determine equivalency by the Department of Fire Programs in cooperation with the Department of Criminal Justice Services. In addition, fire marshals with police powers shall continue to exercise those powers only upon satisfactory participation in in-service and advanced courses and programs designed by the Department of Fire Programs in cooperation with the Department of Criminal Justice Services, which courses shall be approved by the Virginia Fire Services Board. 1977, c. 209; 1979, c. 446; 1984, c. 779; 1986, c. 60; 1988, c. 65; 2000, cc. 39, 390; 2023, cc. 215, 216.

Va. Code § 27-41

§ 27-41. Relief provided for.Financial relief shall be extended by the counties, cities and towns of Virginia to volunteer fire fighters who are killed or injured while engaged in fighting fire or while responding to an alarm or returning from the scene of a fire, such relief to be paid in amounts and manner as hereinafter set forth. 1928, p. 1002; Michie Code 1942, § 3144a; 1970, c. 187; 1977, c. 326.

Va. Code § 27-43

§ 27-43. Payment on death.Should any volunteer fire fighter be killed while actually engaged in fighting fire, or while going to a fire in answer to an alarm or returning therefrom, the governing body of the county, city or town in which his company is located shall pay to his personal representative, for the benefit of his estate, the sum of $1,000. 1928, p. 1002; Michie Code 1942, § 3144c; 1970, c. 187; 1977, c. 326.

Va. Code § 27-56

§ 27-56. Department to examine into origin of fires; appointment of arson investigators.The Department shall examine, or cause examination to be made, into the origin and circumstances of all fires occurring in this Commonwealth, which may be brought to its attention by official report, or otherwise, and for that purpose shall have authority to call for and demand of the chief or other head officer of the fire department, and the chief or other head officer of the police department, of any city or town, and the sheriff of any county, for any information or assistance it may require in making or furthering such examination. The Department shall appoint a chief arson investigator and assistant arson investigators, who shall have the same police powers as a sheriff in the investigation and prosecution of all offenses involving fires, fire bombings, bombings, attempts, threats to commit such offense, false alarms relating to any such offense, possession and manufacture of explosive devices, substances and firebombs. Code 1919, § 4186; 1977, c. 613.

Va. Code § 27-97

§ 27-97. Adoption of Fire Prevention Code.The Board of Housing and Community Development is hereby empowered to adopt and promulgate a Statewide Fire Prevention Code which shall be cooperatively developed with the Fire Services Board pursuant to procedures agreed to by the two Boards. The Fire Prevention Code shall prescribe regulations to be complied with for the protection of life and property from the hazards of fire or explosion and for the handling, storage, sale, and use of fireworks, explosives, or blasting agents, and shall provide for the administration and enforcement of such regulations. The Fire Prevention Code shall require manufacturers of fireworks or explosives, as defined in the Code, to register and report information concerning their manufacturing facilities and methods of operation within the Commonwealth in accordance with regulations adopted by the Board. In addition to conducting criminal background checks pursuant to § 27-97.2, the Board shall also establish regulations for obtaining permits for the manufacturing, storage, handling, use, or sales of fireworks or explosives. In the enforcement of such regulations, the enforcing agency may issue annual permits for such activities to any state regulated public utility. Such permits shall not apply to the storage, handling, or use of explosives or blasting agents pursuant to the provisions of Title 45.2. The Fire Prevention Code shall prohibit any person, firm, or corporation from transporting, manufacturing, storing, selling, offering for sale, exposing for sale, or buying, using, igniting, or exploding any fireworks except for those persons, firms, or corporations that manufacture, store, market and distribute fireworks for the sole purpose of fireworks displays permitted by an enforcement agency or by any locality. The Fire Prevention Code shall supersede fire prevention regulations heretofore adopted by local governments or other political subdivisions. Local governments are hereby empowered to adopt fire prevention regulations that are more restrictive or more extensive in scope than the Fire Prevention Code provided such regulations do not affect the manner of construction, or materials to be used in the erection, alteration, repair, or use of a building or structure, including the voluntary installation of smoke alarms and regulation and inspections thereof in commercial buildings where such smoke alarms are not required under the provisions of the Code. The Fire Prevention Code shall prohibit any person not certified by the State Fire Marshal's Office as a fireworks operator or pyrotechnician to design, set up, or conduct or supervise the design, setup, or conducting of any fireworks display, either inside a building or structure or outdoors and shall require that at least one person holding a valid certification is present at the site where the fireworks display is being conducted. Certification shall not be required for the design, storage, sale, use, conduct, transportation, and set up of permissible fireworks or the supervision thereof or in connection with any fireworks display conducted by a volunteer fire department provided one member of the volunteer fire department holds a valid certification. In formulating the Fire Prevention Code, the Board shall have due regard for generally accepted standards as recommended by nationally recognized organizations including, but not limited to, standards of the International Code Council, the National Fire Protection Association, and recognized organizations issuing standards for the protection of the public from the hazards of explosives and blasting agents. Such standards shall be based on the companion document to the model building code referenced by the Uniform Statewide Building Code. The Fire Prevention Code shall require that buildings constructed prior to 1973 be maintained in accordance with state fire and public building regulations in effect prior to March 31, 1986, and that any building which is (i) more than 75 feet or more than six stories high and (ii) used, in whole or in part, as a dormitory to house students by any public or private institution of higher education shall be required to comply with the provisions of § 36-99.3. The Fire Prevention Code shall also require annual fire drills in all buildings having floors used for human occupancy located more than 75 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access. The drills shall be conducted by building staff personnel or the owner of the building in accordance with a plan approved by the appropriate fire official and shall not affect other current occupants. The Board may modify, amend, or repeal any Code provisions as the public interest requires. Any such Code changes shall be developed in cooperation with the Fire Services Board pursuant to procedures agreed to by the two Boards. The Fire Prevention Code shall prohibit the offering or sale to the public of unsafe lighters or counterfeit lighters regardless of whether such offering or sale is conducted on a retail basis or wholesale basis; however, the Fire Prevention Code shall not prohibit (i) the interstate transportation of counterfeit lighters or unsafe lighters through the Commonwealth or (ii) the storage of counterfeit lighters or unsafe lighters in any distribution center or warehouse located in the Commonwealth, if such distribution center or warehouse is closed to the public and does not distribute or sell such lighters to the public. 1986, c. 429; 1988, cc. 199, 340; 1989, cc. 90, 420; 1990, c. 69; 1991, c. 53; 1994, c. 275; 1997, c. 584; 2000, cc. 951, 1065; 2002, c. 856; 2007, cc. 647, 741; 2010, cc. 587, 643; 2025, c. 97.

Va. Code § 36-103

§ 36-103. Buildings, etc., existing or projected before effective date of Code.Any building or structure, for which a building permit has been issued or on which construction has commenced, or for which working drawings have been prepared in the year prior to the effective date of the Building Code, shall remain subject to the building regulations in effect at the time of such issuance or commencement of construction. However, the Board may adopt and promulgate as part of the Building Code, building regulations that facilitate the maintenance, rehabilitation, development and reuse of existing buildings at the least possible cost to ensure the protection of the public health, safety and welfare. Subsequent reconstruction, renovation, repair or demolition of such buildings or structures shall be subject to the pertinent construction and rehabilitation provisions of the Building Code. The provisions of this section shall be applicable to equipment. However, building owners may elect to install partial or full fire alarms or other safety equipment that was not required by the Building Code in effect at the time a building was constructed without meeting current Building Code requirements, provided the installation does not create a hazardous condition. Permits for installation shall be obtained in accordance with the Uniform Statewide Building Code. 1972, c. 829; 1976, c. 638; 1982, c. 267; 1986, c. 32; 2002, c. 555; 2003, c. 650.

Va. Code § 36-139.01

§ 36-139.01. Department to develop form; smoke alarms in rental units.On or before January 1, 2019, the Department, in consultation with the Department of Fire Programs, shall develop a form (i) providing a landlord's certification that the smoke alarms in a rental unit have been inspected and are in good working order; (ii) summarizing the obligations of a landlord relative to the maintenance of smoke alarms; and (iii) summarizing the obligations of a tenant relative to the maintenance of smoke alarms. Such form may be updated by the Department as needed. The Department and the Department of Fire Programs shall post the form required by this section on each agency's website. 2018, cc. 41, 81.

Va. Code § 36-99.3

§ 36-99.3. Smoke alarms and automatic sprinkler systems in institutions of higher education.A. Buildings at institutions of higher education that contain dormitories for sleeping purposes shall be provided with battery operated or AC powered smoke alarm devices installed therein in accordance with the Building Code. All dormitories at public institutions of higher education and private institutions of higher education shall have installed and use due diligence in maintaining in good working order such alarms regardless of when the building was constructed. B. The Board of Housing and Community Development shall promulgate regulations pursuant to § 2.2-4011 establishing standards for automatic sprinkler systems throughout all buildings at private institutions of higher education and public institutions of higher education that are (i) more than 75 feet or more than six stories high and (ii) used, in whole or in part, as dormitories to house students. Such buildings shall be equipped with automatic sprinkler systems by September 1, 1999, regardless of when such buildings were constructed. C. The chief administrative office of the institution of higher education shall obtain a certificate of compliance with the provisions of this section from the building official of the locality in which the institution of higher education is located or, in the case of state-owned buildings, from the Director of the Department of General Services. D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to any dormitory at a military public institution of higher education that is patrolled 24 hours a day by military guards. 1982, c. 357; 1997, c. 584; 2018, cc. 41, 81.

Va. Code § 36-99.4

§ 36-99.4. Smoke alarms in certain juvenile care facilities.Battery operated or AC powered smoke alarm devices shall be installed in all local and regional detention homes, group homes, and other residential care facilities for children or juveniles that are operated by or under the auspices of the Department of Juvenile Justice, regardless of when the building was constructed, in accordance with the provisions of the Building Code. Administrators of such homes and facilities shall be responsible for the installation and maintenance of the smoke alarm devices. 1984, c. 179; 1989, c. 733; 2018, cc. 41, 81.

Va. Code § 36-99.5

§ 36-99.5. Smoke alarms for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing.Smoke alarms for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing shall be installed only in conformance with the provisions of the current Building Code and maintained in accordance with the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.) and subdivision C 6 of § 36-105, Part III of the Building Code. Such alarms shall be provided by the landlord or proprietor, upon request by a tenant of a rental unit or a person living with such tenant who is deaf or hard of hearing as referenced by the Virginia Fair Housing Law (§ 36-96.1 et seq.), or upon request by an occupant of any of the following occupancies, regardless of when constructed: 1. All dormitory buildings arranged for the shelter and sleeping accommodations of more than 20 individuals; 2. All boarding and lodging houses arranged for shelter and sleeping accommodations of more than five individuals; or 3. All residential rental dwelling units. A tenant shall be responsible for the maintenance and operation of the smoke alarm in the tenant's unit in accordance with § 55.1-1227. A hotel or motel shall have available no fewer than one such smoke alarm for each 70 units or portion thereof, except that this requirement shall not apply to any hotel or motel with fewer than 35 units. The proprietor of the hotel or motel shall post in a conspicuous place at the registration desk or counter a permanent sign stating the availability of smoke alarms for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing. Visual alarms shall be provided for all meeting rooms for which an advance request has been made. The proprietor or landlord may require a refundable deposit for a smoke alarm, not to exceed the original cost or replacement cost, whichever is greater, of such smoke alarm. Rental fees shall not be increased as compensation for this requirement. A landlord of a rental unit shall provide a reasonable accommodation to a person who is deaf or hard of hearing who requests installation of a smoke alarm that is appropriate for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing if such accommodation is appropriate in accordance with the Virginia Fair Housing Law (§ 36-96.1 et seq.). 1984, c. 753; 1988, c. 183; 2011, c. 766; 2018, cc. 41, 81; 2019, c. 288.

Va. Code § 4.1-1602

§ 4.1-1602. Permit to operate pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility.A. No person shall operate a pharmaceutical processor or a cannabis dispensing facility without first obtaining a permit from the Board. The application for such permit shall be made on a form provided by the Authority and signed by a pharmacist who will be in full and actual charge of the pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility. The Board shall establish an application fee and other general requirements for such application. B. Each permit shall expire annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation. The number of permits that the Board may issue or renew in any year is limited to one pharmaceutical processor and up to five cannabis dispensing facilities for each health service area established by the Board of Health. Permits shall be displayed in a conspicuous place on the premises of the pharmaceutical processor and cannabis dispensing facility. C. The Board shall adopt regulations establishing health, safety, and security requirements for pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities. Such regulations shall include requirements for (i) physical standards; (ii) location restrictions; (iii) security systems and controls; (iv) minimum equipment and resources; (v) recordkeeping; (vi) labeling and packaging; (vii) routine inspections no more frequently than once annually; (viii) processes for safely and securely dispensing and delivering in person cannabis products to a patient, his registered agent, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian; (ix) dosage limitations for cannabis products that provide that each dispensed dose of a cannabis product not exceed 10 milligrams of total tetrahydrocannabinol, except as permitted under § 4.1-1603.2; (x) a process for the wholesale distribution of and the transfer of usable cannabis, botanical cannabis, cannabis oil, and cannabis products between pharmaceutical processors, between a pharmaceutical processor and a cannabis dispensing facility, and between cannabis dispensing facilities; (xi) an allowance for the sale of devices for administration of dispensed cannabis products and hemp-based CBD products that meet the applicable standards set forth in state and federal law, including the laboratory testing standards set forth in subsection N; (xii) an allowance for the use and distribution of inert product samples containing no cannabinoids for patient demonstration exclusively at the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility, and not for further distribution or sale, without the need for a written certification; (xiii) a process for acquiring industrial hemp extracts and formulating such extracts into cannabis products; and (xiv) an allowance for the advertising and promotion of the pharmaceutical processor's products and operations, which shall not limit the pharmaceutical processor from the provision of educational material to practitioners who issue written certifications and patients. The Board shall also adopt regulations for pharmaceutical processors that include requirements for (a) processes for safely and securely cultivating cannabis plants intended for producing cannabis products, (b) the disposal of agricultural waste, and (c) a process for registering cannabis products. D. The Board shall require pharmaceutical processors, after processing and before dispensing any cannabis products, to make a sample available from each batch of cannabis product for testing by an independent laboratory that is located in Commonwealth and meets Board requirements. A valid sample size for testing shall be determined by each laboratory and may vary due to sample matrix, analytical method, and laboratory-specific procedures. A minimum sample size of 0.5 percent of individual units for dispensing or distribution from each homogenized batch of cannabis oil is required to achieve a representative cannabis oil sample for analysis. A minimum sample size, to be determined by the certified testing laboratory, from each batch of botanical cannabis is required to achieve a representative botanical cannabis sample for analysis. Botanical cannabis products shall only be tested for the following: total cannabidiol (CBD), total tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), terpenes, pesticide chemical residue, heavy metals, mycotoxins, moisture, and microbiological contaminants. Testing thresholds shall be consistent with generally accepted cannabis industry thresholds. The pharmaceutical processor may remediate botanical cannabis or cannabis oil that fails any quality testing standard except pesticides. Following remediation, all remediated botanical cannabis or cannabis oil shall be subject to laboratory testing, which shall not be more stringent than initial testing prior to remediation. Remediated botanical cannabis or cannabis oil that passes such quality testing may be packaged and labeled. If a batch of botanical cannabis fails retesting after remediation, it shall be considered usable cannabis and may be processed into cannabis oil. Stability testing shall not be required for any cannabis product with an expiration date assigned by the pharmaceutical processor of 12 months or less from the date of the cannabis product registration approval. Stability testing required for assignment of an expiration date longer than 12 months shall be limited to microbial testing, on a pass/fail basis, and potency testing, on a 15 percent deviation basis, of total THC and total CBD. No cannabis product shall have an expiration date longer than 12 months from the date of the cannabis product registration approval unless supported by stability testing. E. A laboratory testing samples for a pharmaceutical processor shall obtain a controlled substances registration certificate pursuant to § 54.1-3423 and shall comply with quality standards established by the Board of Pharmacy in regulation. F. Every pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility shall be under the personal supervision of a licensed pharmacist on the premises of the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility unless all cannabis products are contained in a vault or other similar container to which only the pharmacist has access controls. The pharmaceutical processor shall ensure that security measures are adequate to protect the cannabis from diversion at all times, and the pharmacist-in-charge shall have concurrent responsibility for preventing diversion from the dispensing area. Every pharmaceutical processor shall designate a person who shall have oversight of the cultivation and production areas of the pharmaceutical processor and shall provide such information to the Board. The Board shall direct all communications related to enforcement of requirements related to cultivation and production of cannabis and cannabis products by the pharmaceutical processor to such designated person. G. The Board shall require the material owners of an applicant for a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility permit to submit to fingerprinting and provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded along with his fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information regarding the applicant's material owners. The cost of fingerprinting and the criminal history record search shall be paid by the applicant. The Central Criminal Records Exchange shall forward the results of the criminal history background check to the Board or its designee, which shall be a governmental entity. H. A pharmaceutical processor shall maintain evidence of criminal background checks for all employees and delivery agents of the pharmaceutical processor. Criminal background checks of employees and delivery agents may be conducted by any service sufficient to disclose any federal and state criminal convictions. I. In addition to other employees authorized by the Board, a pharmaceutical processor may employ individuals who may have less than one year of experience (i) to perform cultivation-related duties under the supervision of an individual who has received a degree in a field related to the cultivation of plants or a certification recognized by the Board or who has at least one year of experience cultivating plants, (ii) to perform extraction-related duties under the supervision of an individual who has a degree in chemistry or pharmacology or at least one year of experience extracting chemicals from plants, (iii) to perform duties at the pharmaceutical processor and cannabis dispensing facility upon certification as a pharmacy technician, and (iv) to serve as pharmacy technician trainees. J. A pharmaceutical processor to whom a permit has been issued by the Board may (i) establish up to five cannabis dispensing facilities, subject to the permit requirement set forth in subsection B, for the dispensing of cannabis products that have been cultivated and produced on the premises of a pharmaceutical processor permitted by the Board and (ii) establish, if authorized by the Board, one additional location at which the pharmaceutical processor may cultivate cannabis plants. Each cannabis dispensing facility and the additional cultivation location shall be located within the same health service area as the pharmaceutical processor. K. No person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the Commonwealth or another jurisdiction within the last five years shall be employed by or act as an agent of a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility. L. Every pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall adopt policies for pre-employment drug screening and regular, ongoing, random drug screening of employees. M. A pharmacist at the pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area and the cannabis dispensing facility shall determine the number of pharmacy interns, pharmacy technicians, and pharmacy technician trainees who can be safely and competently supervised at one time; however, no pharmacist shall supervise more than six persons performing the duties of a pharmacy technician at one time in the pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility. N. A pharmaceutical processor may acquire from a registered industrial hemp handler or processor industrial hemp extracts that (i) are grown and processed in Virginia in compliance with state or federal law, and (ii) notwithstanding the tetrahydrocannabinol limits set forth in the definition of "industrial hemp extract" in § 3.2-5145.1, contain a total tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of no greater than 0.3 percent. A pharmaceutical processor may process and formulate such extracts into an allowable dosage of cannabis product. Industrial hemp extracts acquired and formulated by a pharmaceutical processor are subject to the same third-party testing requirements that may apply to cannabis plant extract. Testing shall be performed by a laboratory located in Virginia and in compliance with state law governing the testing of cannabis products. The industrial hemp handler or processor shall provide such third-party testing results to the pharmaceutical processor before industrial hemp extracts may be acquired. O. Product labels for all cannabis products and botanical cannabis shall be complete, accurate, easily discernable, and uniform among different products and brands. Pharmaceutical processors shall affix to all cannabis products and botanical cannabis a label, which shall also be accessible on the pharmaceutical processor's website, that includes: 1. The product name; 2. All active and inactive ingredients, including cannabinoids, terpenes, additives, preservatives, flavorings, sweeteners, and carrier oils; 3. The total percentage and milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol and cannabidiol included in the product and the number of milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol and cannabidiol in each serving; 4. The amount of product that constitutes a single serving and the amount recommended for use by the practitioner or dispensing pharmacist; 5. Information regarding the product's purpose and detailed usage directions; 6. Child and safety warnings in a conspicuous font; and 7. Such other information required by the Board. P. A pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall maintain an adequate supply of cannabis products that (i) contain cannabidiol as their primary cannabinoid and (ii) have low levels of or no tetrahydrocannabinol. Q. With the exception of § 2.2-4031, neither the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) nor public participation guidelines adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the adoption of any regulation pursuant to this section. Prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to this section, the Board shall publish a notice of opportunity to comment in the Virginia Register of Regulations and post the action on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall. Such notice of opportunity to comment shall contain (i) a summary of the proposed regulation; (ii) the text of the proposed regulation; and (iii) the name, address, and telephone number of the agency contact person responsible for receiving public comments. Such notice shall be made at least 60 days in advance of the last date prescribed in such notice for submittals of public comment. The legislative review provisions of subsections A and B of § 2.2-4014 shall apply to the promulgation or final adoption process for regulations pursuant to this section. The Board shall consider and keep on file all public comments received for any regulation adopted pursuant to this section. 2023, cc. 740, 744, 760, 773, 780, 794, 799, 812; 2024, c. 732.

Va. Code § 4.1-606

§ 4.1-606. Regulations of the Board.A. The Board may promulgate reasonable regulations, not inconsistent with this subtitle or the general laws of the Commonwealth, that it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this subtitle and to prevent the illegal cultivation, manufacture, sale, and testing of marijuana and marijuana products. The Board may amend or repeal such regulations. Such regulations shall be promulgated, amended, or repealed in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and shall have the effect of law. B. The Board shall promulgate regulations that: 1. Govern the outdoor cultivation of marijuana by a marijuana cultivation facility licensee, including security requirements to include lighting, physical security, and alarm requirements, provided that such requirements do not prohibit the cultivation of marijuana outdoors or in a greenhouse; 2. Establish requirements for securely transporting marijuana between marijuana establishments; 3. Establish sanitary standards for retail marijuana product preparation; 4. Establish a testing program for retail marijuana and retail marijuana products pursuant to Chapter 14 (§ 4.1-1400 et seq.); 5. Establish an application process for licensure as a marijuana establishment pursuant to this subtitle in a way that, when possible, prevents disparate impacts on historically disadvantaged communities; 6. Establish requirements for health and safety warning labels to be placed on retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer in accordance with the provisions of this subtitle; 7. Establish a maximum tetrahydrocannabinol level for retail marijuana products, which shall not exceed (i) five milligrams per serving for edible marijuana products and where practicable an equivalent amount for other marijuana products or (ii) 50 milligrams per package for edible marijuana products and where practicable an equivalent amount for other marijuana products. Such regulations may include other product and dispensing limitations on tetrahydrocannabinol; 8. Establish requirements for the form, content, and retention of all records and accounts by all licensees; 9. Provide alternative methods for licensees to maintain and store business records that are subject to Board inspection, including methods for Board-approved electronic and offsite storage; 10. Establish (i) criteria by which to evaluate new licensees based on the density of retail marijuana stores in the community and (ii) metrics that have similarly shown an association with negative community-level health outcomes or health disparities. In promulgating such regulations, the Board shall coordinate with the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council established pursuant to § 4.1-603; 11. Require retail licensees to file an appeal from any hearing decision rendered by a hearing officer within 30 days of the date the notice of the decision is sent. The notice shall be sent to the licensee at the address on record with the Board by certified mail, return receipt requested, and by regular mail; 12. Prescribe the schedule of proration for refunded license fees to licensees who qualify pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-1002; 13. Establish criteria by which to evaluate social equity license applicants, which shall be an applicant who has lived or been domiciled for at least 12 months in the Commonwealth and is either (i) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who have been convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for any misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-248.1, former § 18.2-250.1, or subsection A of § 18.2-265.3 as it relates to marijuana; (ii) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who is the parent, child, sibling, or spouse of a person who has been convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for any misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-248.1, former § 18.2-250.1, or subsection A of § 18.2-265.3 as it relates to marijuana; (iii) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who have resided for at least three of the past five years in a jurisdiction that is determined by the Board after utilizing census tract data made available by the United States Census Bureau to have been disproportionately policed for marijuana crimes; (iv) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who have resided for at least three of the last five years in a jurisdiction determined by the Board after utilizing census tract data made available by the United States Census Bureau to be economically distressed; or (v) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who graduated from a historically black college or university located in the Commonwealth; 14. For the purposes of establishing criteria by which to evaluate social equity license applicants, establish standards by which to determine (i) which jurisdictions have been disproportionately policed for marijuana crimes and (ii) which jurisdictions are economically distressed; 15. Establish standards and requirements for (i) any preference in the licensing process for qualified social equity applicants, (ii) what percentage of application or license fees are waived for a qualified social equity applicant, and (iii) a low-interest business loan program for qualified social equity applicants; 16. Establish guidelines, in addition to requirements set forth in this subtitle, for the personal cultivation of marijuana that promote personal and public safety, including child protection, and discourage personal cultivation practices that create a nuisance, including a nuisance caused by odor; 17. Establish reasonable time, place, and manner restrictions on outdoor advertising of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products, not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter, so that such advertising displaces the illicit market and notifies the public of the location of marijuana establishments. Such regulations shall be promulgated in accordance with § 4.1-1404; 18. Establish restrictions on the number of licenses that a person may be granted to operate a marijuana establishment in single locality or region; and 19. Establish restrictions on pharmaceutical processors and industrial hemp processors that have been granted a license in more than one license category pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-805 that ensure all licensees have an equal and meaningful opportunity to participate in the market. Such regulations may limit the amount of products cultivated or manufactured by the pharmaceutical processor or industrial hemp processor that such processor may offer for sale in its retail marijuana stores. C. The Board may promulgate regulations that: 1. Limit the number of licenses issued by type or class to operate a marijuana establishment; however, the number of licenses issued shall not exceed the following limits: a. Retail marijuana stores, 400; b. Marijuana wholesalers, 25; c. Marijuana manufacturing facilities, 60; and d. Marijuana cultivation facilities, 450. In determining the number of licenses issued pursuant to this subdivision, the Board shall not consider any license granted pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-805 to (i) a pharmaceutical processor that has been issued a permit by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act or (ii) an industrial hemp processor registered with the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to Chapter 41.1 (§ 3.2-4112 et seq.) of Title 3.2. 2. Prescribe any requirements deemed appropriate for the administration of taxes under §§ 4.1-1003 and 4.1-1004, including method of filing a return, information required on a return, and form of payment. 3. Limit the allowable square footage of a retail marijuana store, which shall not exceed 1,500 square feet. 4. Allow certain persons to be granted or have interest in a license in more than one of the following license categories: marijuana cultivation facility license, marijuana manufacturing facility license, marijuana wholesaler license, or retail marijuana store license. Such regulations shall be drawn narrowly to limit vertical integration to small businesses and ensure that all licensees have an equal and meaningful opportunity to participate in the market. D. Board regulations shall be uniform in their application, except those relating to hours of sale for licensees. E. Courts shall take judicial notice of Board regulations. F. The Board shall consult with the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council in promulgating any regulations relating to public health, including regulations promulgated pursuant to subdivision B 3, 4, 6, 7, 10, or 16, and shall not promulgate any such regulation that has not been approved by a majority of the members of the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council. G. With regard to regulations governing licensees that have been issued a permit by the Board of Pharmacy to operate as a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act, the Board shall make reasonable efforts (i) to align such regulations with any applicable regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy that establish health, safety, and security requirements for pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities and (ii) to deem in compliance with applicable regulations promulgated pursuant to this subtitle such pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities that have been found to be in compliance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy that mirror or are more extensive in scope than similar regulations promulgated pursuant to this subtitle. H. The Board's power to regulate shall be broadly construed. 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550, 551.

Va. Code § 45.2-1139

§ 45.2-1139. Requirements of recovery work.A. During recovery work and prior to entering any mine, each mine rescue team conducting recovery work shall be properly informed of existing conditions by the operator or his agent in charge. B. Each mine rescue team performing rescue or recovery work with breathing apparatus shall be provided with a backup team of equal strength, stationed at each fresh air base. C. For every two teams performing work underground, one six-member team shall be stationed at the mine portal. D. Two-way communication, life lines, or their equivalent shall be provided by the fresh air base to each team, and no team member shall be permitted to advance beyond such communication system. E. A mine rescue team shall immediately return to the fresh air base if any team member's breathing apparatus malfunctions or the low-oxygen alarm activates. F. The Director may also assign rescue and recovery work to inspectors, instructors, or other qualified employees of the Department as the Director determines to be desirable. 1997, c. 390, § 45.1-161.292:45; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 387.

Va. Code § 45.2-550

§ 45.2-550. Requirements of recovery work.A. During recovery work and prior to entering any mine, every mine rescue team conducting recovery work shall be properly informed of existing conditions by the operator or his agent in charge. B. Each mine rescue team performing rescue or recovery work with breathing apparatus shall be provided with a backup team of equal strength stationed at each fresh air base. C. For every two teams performing work underground, one six-member team shall be stationed at the mine portal. D. Two-way communication, life lines, or their equivalent shall be provided by the fresh air base to each team, and no team member shall be permitted to advance beyond such communication system. E. A mine rescue team shall immediately return to the fresh air base if any team member's breathing apparatus malfunctions or the low-oxygen alarm activates. F. The Director may also assign rescue and recovery work to inspectors, instructors, or other qualified employees of the Department as the Director determines desirable. 1975, c. 432, § 45.1-33.5; 1984, c. 590; 1994, c. 28, § 45.1-161.72; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 387.

Va. Code § 45.2-833

§ 45.2-833. Main fans.A. The active workings of a mine shall be ventilated by means of main fans. B. Unless otherwise approved by the Chief, each fan shall be (i) provided with pressure-recording gauges, (ii) installed on the surface in a fireproof housing, and (iii) equipped with fireproof air ducts. C. In addition to the requirements of subsection B, each main fan shall either: 1. Be equipped with ample means of pressure relief and be offset not less than 15 feet from the nearest side of the mine opening; or 2. Be directly in front of, or over, the mine opening; however, such opening shall not be in direct line with forces coming out of the mine if an explosion were to occur. There shall be another opening, equipped with a weak-wall stopping or with explosion doors, that is located not less than 15 feet or more than 100 feet from the fan opening and in direct line with the forces coming out of the mine if an explosion were to occur; and 3. In a mine ventilated by multiple main mine fans, incombustible doors shall be installed so that if any main mine fan stops and air reversals through the fan are possible, the doors on the affected fan automatically close. D. Each main mine fan shall be provided with an automatic device to give alarm when the fan slows down or stops. Unless otherwise approved by the Chief, such device shall be placed so that it will be seen or heard by an authorized person. E. Each main fan shall be on a separate power circuit, independent of the mine circuit. F. The area surrounding a main fan installation shall be kept free of combustible material for at least 100 feet in every direction where physical conditions permit. G. Each mine fan shall be operated continuously except when no miner is underground and such mine fan is intentionally stopped for necessary testing, adjustment, maintenance, or repairs, or as otherwise approved by the Chief. If the main fan is intentionally stopped for testing, adjustment, maintenance, or repairs, the mine operator shall comply with the requirements set forth in the approved fan stoppage plan for that mine. If the main fan is stopped after all miners are out of the mine, the fan shall be operated for a period specified in the approved fan stoppage plan for that mine, prepared pursuant to § 45.2-834, before any miner is allowed underground. H. Where electric power is available, no main mine fan shall be powered by means of an internal combustion engine. However, if electric power is not available or the fan is employed for emergency use, a main mine fan may be powered with an internal combustion engine. Unless otherwise approved by the Chief, such fan shall be operated exhausting and the engine operating such fan shall be offset at least 10 feet from the fan and housed in a separate fireproof structure. Code 1950, § 45-60.1; 1954, c. 191; 1966, c. 594, § 45.1-54; 1978, c. 120; 1988, c. 597; 1993, c. 442; 1994, c. 28, § 45.1-161.216; 1996, c. 774; 2005, c. 3; 2011, cc. 826, 862; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 387.

Va. Code § 45.2-917

§ 45.2-917. Safety measures on equipment.A. Every rubber-tired or crawler-mounted piece of equipment shall have a rollover protective structure to the extent required by 30 C.F.R. § 77.403-1. B. Each seat belt provided in mobile equipment shall be maintained in safe working condition. Every operator of such equipment shall wear a seat belt when the equipment is in motion. C. Mobile equipment shall be equipped with adequate brakes and parking brakes. D. Cab windows shall be of safe design, kept in good condition, and clean for adequate visibility. E. Any tire shall be deflated before any repair on it is started, and adequate means shall be provided to prevent wheel-locking rims from creating a hazard during tire inflation. F. An audible warning device and headlights shall be provided on each piece of self-propelled mobile equipment. G. An automatic backup alarm that is audible above surrounding noise levels shall be provided on each piece of mobile equipment. An automatic reverse-activated strobe light may be substituted for an audible alarm when mobile equipment is operated at night. H. Each piece of equipment that is raised for repairs or other work shall be securely blocked before any person positions himself where the falling of such equipment could create a hazardous condition. Code 1950, § 45-69.1; 1954, c. 191; 1966, c. 594, § 45.1-73; 1979, c. 315; 1983, c. 70; 1985, c. 302; 1994, c. 28, § 45.1-161.270; 1996, c. 774; 1999, c. 256; 2005, c. 3; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 387.

Va. Code § 46.2-1060

§ 46.2-1060. Illegal sirens, whistles, etc.; unlawful use of warning devices; exceptions.It shall be unlawful for any vehicle to be equipped with or for any person to use on any vehicle any siren or exhaust, compression or spark plug whistle, or horn except as may be authorized in this title. It shall be unlawful for any vehicle operated on a public highway to be equipped with any warning device that is not of a type that has been approved by the Superintendent. It shall further be unlawful for any person at any time to use a horn otherwise than as a reasonable warning or to make any unnecessary or unreasonably loud or harsh sound by means of a horn or other warning device. However, vehicles of common carriers or extraordinarily large and heavy vehicles may be equipped with such type of warning device as the Superintendent may require or permit. Notwithstanding the provisions of this article, a siren, bell, or supplemental horn may be used on a vehicle as a noisemaker for an alarm system if the device is installed so as to prohibit actuation of the system by the driver while the vehicle is in motion. Code 1950, § 46-290; 1958, c. 541, § 46.1-284; 1962, c. 146; 1970, c. 283; 1989, c. 727.

Va. Code § 46.2-1088.2

§ 46.2-1088.2. Warning devices required on certain vehicles.Any self-propelled vehicle used to sell ice cream, snacks and similar products at retail directly from the vehicle in residential neighborhoods shall be equipped with a device or devices, of a type approved by the Superintendent of State Police, in good working order, that, whenever the vehicle is operated in reverse gear, automatically display a light signal and emit an audible alarm signal. The provisions of this section shall not be construed to authorize such vehicles to be equipped with red, blue, or amber warning lights unless authorized under Article 3 (§ 46.2-1010 et seq.) of this chapter. The provisions of this section shall not apply to vehicles commonly known as "concession trailers," "special events trailers" and similar equipment used to sell or dispense food, soft drinks, bottled water, fruit drinks, wine or malt beverages directly to consumers. 2001, c. 200.

Va. Code § 46.2-1175.1

§ 46.2-1175.1. Inspection of certain refuse collection and highway maintenance vehicles.No safety inspection approval sticker shall be issued under this article to any publicly or privately owned vehicle (i) used for garbage and refuse collection and disposal or (ii) having a manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating of 10,001 pounds or more and used primarily for highway repair or maintenance unless any such vehicle is equipped with a device, in good working order, which automatically emits an audible alarm signal when the vehicle is operated in reverse gear. Any such device shall be of a type approved by the Superintendent of State Police. 1989, cc. 297, 317, § 46.1-326.1:2. Article 22. Emissions Inspections.

Va. Code § 46.2-818.2

§ 46.2-818.2. Use of handheld personal communications devices in certain motor vehicles; exceptions; penalty.A. It is unlawful for any person, while driving a moving motor vehicle on the highways in the Commonwealth, to hold a handheld personal communications device. B. The provisions of this section shall not apply to: 1. The operator of any emergency vehicle while he is engaged in the performance of his official duties; 2. An operator who is lawfully parked or stopped; 3. Any person using a handheld personal communications device to report an emergency; 4. The use of an amateur or a citizens band radio; or 5. The operator of any Department of Transportation vehicle or vehicle operated pursuant to the Department of Transportation safety service patrol program or pursuant to a contract with the Department of Transportation for, or that includes, traffic incident management services as defined in subsection B of § 46.2-920.1 during the performance of traffic incident management services. C. A violation of this section is a traffic infraction punishable, for a first offense, by a fine of $125. D. A violation of this section is a traffic infraction punishable, for a second or subsequent offense, by a fine of $250. E. If a violation of this section occurs in a highway work zone, it shall be punishable by a mandatory fine of $250. F. For the purposes of this section: "Emergency vehicle" means: 1. Any law-enforcement vehicle operated by or under the direction of a federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer while engaged in the performance of official duties; 2. Any regional detention center vehicle operated by or under the direction of a correctional officer responding to an emergency call or operating in an emergency situation; 3. Any vehicle used to fight fire, including publicly owned state forest warden vehicles, when traveling in response to a fire alarm or emergency call; 4. Any emergency medical services vehicle designed or used for the principal purpose of supplying resuscitation or emergency relief where human life is endangered; 5. Any Department of Emergency Management vehicle or Office of Emergency Medical Services vehicle, when responding to an emergency call or operating in an emergency situation; 6. Any Department of Corrections vehicle designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections, when (i) responding to an emergency call at a correctional facility, (ii) participating in a drug-related investigation, (iii) pursuing escapees from a correctional facility, or (iv) responding to a request for assistance from a law-enforcement officer; and 7. Any vehicle authorized to be equipped with alternating, blinking, or flashing red or red and white secondary warning lights pursuant to § 46.2-1029.2. "Highway work zone" means a construction or maintenance area that is located on or beside a highway and is marked by appropriate warning signs with attached flashing lights or other traffic control devices indicating that work is in progress. G. Distracted driving shall be included as a part of the driver's license knowledge examination. 2020, cc. 250, 543; 2023, cc. 557, 558. Article 1.1. Toll Violations and Enforcement.

Va. Code § 46.2-920

§ 46.2-920. Certain vehicles exempt from regulations in certain situations; exceptions and additional requirements.A. The driver of any emergency vehicle, when such vehicle is being used in the performance of public services, and when such vehicle is operated under emergency conditions, may, without subjecting himself to criminal prosecution: 1. Disregard speed limits, while having due regard for safety of persons and property; 2. Proceed past any steady or flashing red signal, traffic light, stop sign, or device indicating moving traffic shall stop if the speed of the vehicle is sufficiently reduced to enable it to pass a signal, traffic light, or device with due regard to the safety of persons and property; 3. Park or stop notwithstanding the other provisions of this chapter; 4. Disregard regulations governing a direction of movement of vehicles turning in specified directions so long as the operator does not endanger life or property; 5. Pass or overtake, with due regard to the safety of persons and property, another vehicle at any intersection; 6. Pass or overtake with due regard to the safety of persons and property, while en route to an emergency, stopped or slow-moving vehicles, by going to the left of the stopped or slow-moving vehicle either in a no-passing zone or by crossing the highway centerline; or 7. Pass or overtake with due regard to the safety of persons and property, while en route to an emergency, stopped or slow-moving vehicles, by going off the paved or main traveled portion of the roadway on the right. Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, vehicles exempted in this instance will not be required to sound a siren or any device to give automatically intermittent signals. B. The exemptions granted to emergency vehicles in subdivisions A 1, 3, 4, 5, and 6 shall apply only when the operator of such vehicle displays a flashing, blinking, or alternating emergency light or lights as provided in §§ 46.2-1022 and 46.2-1023 and sounds a siren, exhaust whistle, or air horn designed to give automatically intermittent signals, as may be reasonably necessary. The exemption granted under subdivision A 2 shall apply only when the operator of such emergency vehicle displays a flashing, blinking, or alternating emergency light or lights as provided in §§ 46.2-1022 and 46.2-1023 and either (a) sounds a siren, exhaust whistle, or air horn designed to give automatically intermittent signals or (b) slows the vehicle down to a speed reasonable for the existing conditions, yields right-of-way to the driver of another vehicle approaching or entering the intersection from another direction or, if required for safety, brings the vehicle to a complete stop before proceeding with due regard for the safety of persons and property. In addition, the exemptions granted to emergency vehicles by subsection A shall apply only when there is in force and effect for such vehicle either (i) standard motor vehicle liability insurance covering injury or death to any person in the sum of at least $100,000 because of bodily injury to or death of one person in any one accident and, subject to the limit for one person, to a limit of $300,000 because of bodily injury to or death of two or more persons in any one accident, and to a limit of $20,000 because of injury to or destruction of property of others in any one accident or (ii) a certificate of self-insurance issued pursuant to § 46.2-368. Such exemptions shall not, however, protect the operator of any such vehicle from criminal prosecution for conduct constituting reckless disregard of the safety of persons and property. Nothing in this section shall release the operator of any such vehicle from civil liability for failure to use reasonable care in such operation. C. For the purposes of this section, "emergency vehicle" means: 1. Any law-enforcement vehicle operated by or under the direction of a federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer (i) in the chase or apprehension of violators of the law or persons charged with or suspected of any such violation or (ii) in response to an emergency call; 2. Any regional detention center vehicle operated by or under the direction of a correctional officer responding to an emergency call or operating in an emergency situation; 3. Any vehicle used to fight fire, including publicly owned state forest warden vehicles, when traveling in response to a fire alarm or emergency call; 4. Any emergency medical services vehicle designed or used for the principal purpose of providing emergency medical services where human life is endangered; 5. Any Department of Emergency Management vehicle or Office of Emergency Medical Services vehicle, when responding to an emergency call or operating in an emergency situation; 6. Any Department of Corrections vehicle designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections, when (i) responding to an emergency call at a correctional facility, (ii) participating in a drug-related investigation, (iii) pursuing escapees from a correctional facility, or (iv) responding to a request for assistance from a law-enforcement officer; 7. Any vehicle authorized to be equipped with alternating, blinking, or flashing red or red and white secondary warning lights under the provisions of § 46.2-1029.2; 8. Any Virginia National Guard Civil Support Team vehicle when responding to an emergency; 9. Any vehicle operated by the Response and Recovery Coordination Branch of the Washington Metropolitan Area Transit Authority's Office of Emergency Preparedness, when responding to an emergency, provided that the operator of any such vehicle (i) has completed an initial emergency vehicle operators course from an approved course list prepared by the Department of Fire Programs, the Office of Emergency Medical Services, or an equivalent agency and (ii) recertifies as an emergency vehicle operator every two years; and 10. Any vehicle operated by a mine rescue team that is certified as a mine rescue team by the Mine Safety and Health Administration under 30 C.F.R. Part 49 when responding to a mine emergency, provided that the operator of any such vehicle (i) has completed an initial emergency vehicle operator course from an approved course list prepared by the Department of Fire Programs, the Office of Emergency Medical Services, or an equivalent agency and (ii) recertifies as an emergency vehicle operator every two years. D. Any law-enforcement vehicle operated by or under the direction of a federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer may disregard speed limits, while having due regard for safety of persons and property, (i) in testing the accuracy of speedometers of such vehicles, (ii) in testing the accuracy of speed measuring devices specified in § 46.2-882, or (iii) in following another vehicle for the purpose of determining its speed. E. A Department of Environmental Quality vehicle, while en route to an emergency and with due regard to the safety of persons and property, may overtake and pass stopped or slow-moving vehicles by going off the paved or main traveled portion of the highway on the right or on the left. These Department of Environmental Quality vehicles shall not be required to sound a siren or any device to give automatically intermittent signals, but shall display red or red and white warning lights when performing such maneuvers. F. Any law-enforcement vehicle operated by or under the direction of a federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer while conducting a funeral escort, wide-load escort, dignitary escort, or any other escort necessary for the safe movement of vehicles and pedestrians may, without subjecting himself to criminal prosecution: 1. Disregard speed limits, while having due regard for safety of persons and property; 2. Proceed past any steady or flashing red signal, traffic light, stop sign, or device indicating moving traffic shall stop if the speed of the vehicle is sufficiently reduced to enable it to pass a signal, traffic light, or device with due regard for the safety of persons and property; 3. Park or stop notwithstanding the other provisions of this chapter; 4. Disregard regulations governing a direction of movement of vehicles turning in specified directions so long as the operator does not endanger life or property; or 5. Pass or overtake, with due regard for the safety of persons and property, another vehicle. Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, vehicles exempted in this subsection may sound a siren or any device to give automatically intermittent signals. Code 1950, § 46-241.1; 1954, c. 356; 1956, c. 192; 1958, c. 541, § 46.1-226; 1966, cc. 350, 699; 1968, c. 89; 1974, c. 365; 1976, c. 24; 1977, c. 549; 1980, cc. 30, 354; 1981, c. 395; 1984, c. 539; 1985, cc. 209, 462; 1989, c. 727; 1992, cc. 33, 96; 1994, c. 69; 1995, c. 92; 2000, c. 120; 2002, c. 134; 2003, c. 115; 2005, c. 583; 2007, cc. 860, 908; 2011, c. 629; 2014, cc. 171, 800; 2015, cc. 502, 503; 2023, cc. 88, 89; 2025, c. 252.

Va. Code § 46.2-921

§ 46.2-921. Following or parking near fire apparatus or emergency medical services vehicle.It shall be unlawful, in any county, city, or town for the driver of any vehicle, other than one on official business, to follow any fire apparatus or emergency medical services vehicle traveling in response to a fire alarm or emergency call at any distance closer than 500 feet to such apparatus or emergency medical services vehicle or to park such vehicle within 500 feet of where fire apparatus has stopped in answer to a fire alarm. Code 1950, § 46-242; 1958, c. 541, § 46.1-227; 1981, c. 394; 1989, c. 727; 2015, cc. 502, 503.

Va. Code § 46.2-922

§ 46.2-922. Driving over fire hose.It shall be unlawful, without the consent of the fire department official in command, for the driver of any vehicle to drive over any unprotected hose of a fire department laid down for use at any fire or alarm of fire. Code 1950, § 46-242.1; 1954, c. 13; 1958, c. 541, § 46.1-228; 1989, c. 727. Article 16. Pedestrians.

Va. Code § 55.1-1220

§ 55.1-1220. Landlord to maintain fit premises.A. The landlord shall: 1. Comply with the requirements of applicable building and housing codes materially affecting health and safety; 2. Make all repairs and do whatever is necessary to put and keep the premises in a fit and habitable condition; 3. Keep all common areas shared by two or more dwelling units of a multifamily premises in a clean and structurally safe condition; 4. Maintain in good and safe working order and condition all electrical, plumbing, sanitary, heating, ventilating, air-conditioning, and other facilities and appliances, including elevators, supplied or required to be supplied by him; 5. Maintain the premises in such a condition as to prevent the accumulation of moisture and the growth of mold and promptly respond to any notices from a tenant as provided in subdivision A 10 of § 55.1-1227. Where there is visible evidence of mold, the landlord shall promptly remediate the mold conditions in accordance with the requirements of subsection E of § 8.01-226.12 and reinspect the dwelling unit to confirm that there is no longer visible evidence of mold in the dwelling unit. The landlord shall provide a tenant with a copy of a summary of information related to mold remediation occurring during that tenancy and, upon request of the tenant, make available the full package of such information and reports not protected by attorney-client privilege. Once the mold has been remediated in accordance with professional standards, the landlord shall not be required to make disclosures of a past incidence of mold to subsequent tenants; 6. Provide and maintain appropriate receptacles and conveniences for the collection, storage, and removal of ashes, garbage, rubbish, and other waste incidental to the occupancy of dwelling units and arrange for the removal of same; 7. Supply running water and reasonable amounts of hot water at all times and reasonable air conditioning if provided and heat in season except where the dwelling unit is so constructed that heat, air conditioning, or hot water is generated by an installation within the exclusive control of the tenant or supplied by a direct public utility connection; and 8. Provide a certificate to the tenant stating that all smoke alarms are present, have been inspected, and are in good working order no more than once every 12 months. The landlord, his employee, or an independent contractor may perform the inspection to determine that the smoke alarm is in good working order. B. The landlord shall perform the duties imposed by subsection A in accordance with law; however, the landlord shall only be liable for the tenant's actual damages proximately caused by the landlord's failure to exercise ordinary care. C. If the duty imposed by subdivision A 1 is greater than any duty imposed by any other subdivision of that subsection, the landlord's duty shall be determined by reference to subdivision A 1. D. The landlord and tenant may agree in writing that the tenant perform the landlord's duties specified in subdivisions A 3, 6, and 7 and also specified repairs, maintenance tasks, alterations, and remodeling, but only if the transaction is entered into in good faith and not for the purpose of evading the obligations of the landlord and if the agreement does not diminish or affect the obligation of the landlord to other tenants in the premises. 1974, c. 680, § 55-248.13; 1987, cc. 361, 636; 2000, c. 760; 2004, c. 226; 2007, c. 634; 2008, cc. 489, 640; 2009, c. 663; 2014, c. 632; 2015, c. 274; 2017, c. 730; 2018, cc. 41, 81; 2019, c. 712.

Va. Code § 55.1-1227

§ 55.1-1227. Tenant to maintain dwelling unit.A. In addition to the provisions of the rental agreement, the tenant shall: 1. Comply with all obligations primarily imposed upon tenants by applicable provisions of building and housing codes materially affecting health and safety; 2. Keep that part of the dwelling unit and the part of the premises that he occupies and uses as clean and safe as the condition of the premises permit; 3. Keep that part of the dwelling unit and the part of the premises that he occupies free from insects and pests, as those terms are defined in § 3.2-3900, and promptly notify the landlord of the existence of any insects or pests; 4. Remove from his dwelling unit all ashes, garbage, rubbish, and other waste in a clean and safe manner and in the appropriate receptacles provided by the landlord; 5. Keep all plumbing fixtures in the dwelling unit or used by the tenant as clean as their condition permits; 6. Use in a reasonable manner all utilities and all electrical, plumbing, sanitary, heating, ventilating, air-conditioning, and other facilities and appliances, including an elevator in a multifamily premises, and keep all utility services paid for by the tenant to the utility service provider or its agent on at all times during the term of the rental agreement; 7. Not deliberately or negligently destroy, deface, damage, impair, or remove any part of the premises or permit any person, whether known by the tenant or not, to do so; 8. Not remove or tamper with a properly functioning smoke alarm installed by the landlord, including removing any working batteries, so as to render the alarm inoperative. The tenant shall maintain the smoke alarm in accordance with the uniform set of standards for maintenance of smoke alarms established in the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.) and subdivision C 6 of § 36-105, Part III of the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.); 9. Not remove or tamper with a properly functioning carbon monoxide alarm installed by the landlord, including the removal of any working batteries, so as to render the carbon monoxide alarm inoperative. The tenant shall maintain the carbon monoxide alarm in accordance with the uniform set of standards for maintenance of carbon monoxide alarms established in the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.) and subdivision C 6 of § 36-105, Part III of the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.); 10. Use reasonable efforts to maintain the dwelling unit and any other part of the premises that he occupies in such a condition as to prevent accumulation of moisture and the growth of mold and promptly notify the landlord of any moisture accumulation that occurs or of any visible evidence of mold discovered by the tenant; 11. Not paint or disturb painted surfaces or make alterations in the dwelling unit without the prior written approval of the landlord, provided that (i) the dwelling unit was constructed prior to 1978 and therefore requires the landlord to provide the tenant with lead-based paint disclosures and (ii) the landlord has provided the tenant with such disclosures and the rental agreement provides that the tenant is required to obtain the landlord's prior written approval before painting, disturbing painted surfaces, or making alterations in the dwelling unit; 12. Be responsible for his conduct and the conduct of other persons, whether known by the tenant or not, who are on the premises with his consent, to ensure that his neighbors' peaceful enjoyment of the premises will not be disturbed; 13. Abide by all reasonable rules and regulations imposed by the landlord; 14. Be financially responsible for the added cost of treatment or extermination due to the tenant's unreasonable delay in reporting the existence of any insects or pests and be financially responsible for the cost of treatment or extermination due to the tenant's fault in failing to prevent infestation of any insects or pests in the area occupied; and 15. Use reasonable care to prevent any dog or other animal in possession of the tenant, authorized occupants, or guests or invitees from causing personal injuries to a third party in the dwelling unit or on the premises, or property damage to the dwelling unit or the premises. B. If the duty imposed by subdivision A 1 is greater than any duty imposed by any other subdivision of that subsection, the tenant's duty shall be determined by reference to subdivision A 1. 1974, c. 680, § 55-248.16; 1987, c. 428; 1999, c. 80; 2000, c. 760; 2003, c. 355; 2004, c. 226; 2008, cc. 489, 617, 640; 2009, c. 663; 2011, c. 766; 2014, c. 632; 2016, c. 744; 2017, cc. 262, 730; 2018, cc. 41, 81, 221; 2019, c. 712.

Va. Code § 55.1-1229

§ 55.1-1229. Access; consent; correction of nonemergency conditions; relocation of tenant; security systems.A. 1. The tenant shall not unreasonably withhold consent to the landlord to enter into the dwelling unit in order to inspect the premises; make necessary or agreed-upon repairs, decorations, alterations, or improvements; supply necessary or agreed-upon services; or exhibit the dwelling unit to prospective or actual purchasers, mortgagees, tenants, workmen, or contractors. 2. If, upon inspection of a dwelling unit during the term of a tenancy, the landlord determines there is a violation by the tenant of § 55.1-1227 or the rental agreement materially affecting health and safety that can be remedied by repair, replacement of a damaged item, or cleaning in accordance with § 55.1-1248, the landlord may make such repairs and send the tenant an invoice for payment. If, upon inspection of the dwelling unit during the term of a tenancy, the landlord discovers a violation of the rental agreement, this chapter, or other applicable law, the landlord may send a written notice of termination pursuant to § 55.1-1245. 3. If the rental agreement so provides and if a tenant without reasonable justification declines to permit the landlord or managing agent to exhibit the dwelling unit for sale or lease, the landlord may recover damages, costs, and reasonable attorney fees against such tenant. As used in this subdivision, "reasonable justification" includes the tenant's reasonable concern for his own health, or the health of any authorized occupant, during a state of emergency declared by the Governor pursuant to § 44-146.17 in response to a communicable disease of public health threat as defined in § 44-146.16, provided that the tenant has provided written notice to the landlord informing the landlord of such concern. In such circumstances, the tenant shall provide to the landlord or managing agent a video tour of the dwelling unit or other acceptable substitute for exhibiting the dwelling unit for sale or lease. 4. The landlord may enter the dwelling unit without consent of the tenant in case of emergency. The landlord shall not abuse the right of access or use it to harass the tenant. Except in case of emergency or if it is impractical to do so, the landlord shall give the tenant notice of his intent to enter and may enter only at reasonable times. Unless impractical to do so, the landlord shall give the tenant at least 72 hours' notice of routine maintenance to be performed that has not been requested by the tenant. Such routine maintenance shall be performed within 14 days of delivery of the notice to the tenant, and the notice shall state the last date on which the maintenance may possibly be performed. If the tenant makes a request for maintenance, the landlord is not required to provide notice to the tenant. Notwithstanding the foregoing, during a state of emergency declared by the Governor pursuant to § 44-146.17 in response to a communicable disease of public health threat as defined in § 44-146.16, the tenant may provide written notice to the landlord requesting that one or more nonemergency property conditions in the dwelling unit not be addressed in the normal course of business of the landlord due to such communicable disease of public health threat. In such case, the tenant shall be deemed to have waived any and all claims and rights under this chapter against the landlord for failure to address such nonemergency property conditions. At any time thereafter, the tenant may consent in writing to the landlord addressing such nonemergency property conditions in the normal course of business of the landlord. In the case of a tenant who has provided notice that he does not want nonemergency repairs made during the state of emergency due to a communicable disease of public health threat, the landlord may nonetheless enter the dwelling unit to do nonemergency repairs and maintenance with at least seven days' written notice to the tenant and at a time consented to by the tenant, no more than once every six months, provided that the employees and agents sent by the landlord are wearing all appropriate and reasonable personal protective equipment as required by state law. Furthermore, if the landlord is required to conduct maintenance or an inspection pursuant to the agreement for the loan or insurance policy that covers the dwelling unit, the tenant shall allow such maintenance or inspection, provided that the employees and agents sent by the landlord are wearing all appropriate personal protective equipment as required by state law. 5. During the pendency of an unlawful detainer filed by the landlord against the tenant, the landlord may request the court to enter an order requiring the tenant to provide the landlord with access to such dwelling unit. B. Upon the sole determination by the landlord of the existence of a nonemergency property condition in the dwelling unit that requires the tenant to temporarily vacate the dwelling unit in order for the landlord to properly remedy such property condition, the landlord may, upon at least 30 days' written notice to the tenant, require the tenant to temporarily vacate the dwelling unit for a period not to exceed 30 days to a comparable dwelling unit, or hotel, as selected by the landlord and at no expense or cost to the tenant. The landlord shall not be required to pay for any other expenses of the tenant that arise after the temporary relocation period. The landlord and tenant may agree for the tenant to temporarily vacate the dwelling unit in less than 30 days. For purposes of this subsection, "nonemergency property condition" means (i) a condition in the dwelling unit that, in the determination of the landlord, is necessary for the landlord to remedy in order for the landlord to be in compliance with § 55.1-1220; (ii) the condition does not need to be remedied within a 24-hour period, with any condition that needs to be remedied within 24 hours being defined as an "emergency condition"; and (iii) the condition can only be effectively remedied by the temporary relocation of the tenant pursuant to the provisions of this subsection. The tenant shall continue to be responsible for payment of rent under the rental agreement during the period of any temporary relocation. The landlord shall pay all costs of repairs or remediation required to address the nonemergency property condition. Refusal of the tenant to cooperate with a temporary relocation pursuant to this subsection shall be deemed a breach of the rental agreement, unless the tenant agrees to vacate the unit and terminate the rental agreement within the 30-day notice period. If the landlord properly remedies the nonemergency property condition within the 30-day period, nothing in this section shall be construed to entitle the tenant to terminate the rental agreement. Further, nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the landlord from taking legal action against the tenant for any noncompliance that occurs during the period of any temporary relocation pursuant to this subsection. During the pendency of an unlawful detainer filed by the landlord against the tenant, the landlord may request the court to enter an order requiring the tenant to provide the landlord with access to such dwelling unit. C. The landlord has no other right to access except by court order or that permitted by §§ 55.1-1248 and 55.1-1249 or if the tenant has abandoned or surrendered the premises. D. The tenant may install within the dwelling unit new security systems that the tenant may believe necessary to ensure his safety, including chain latch devices approved by the landlord and fire detection devices, provided that: 1. Installation does no permanent damage to any part of the dwelling unit; 2. A duplicate of all keys and instructions for the operation of all devices are given to the landlord; and 3. Upon termination of the tenancy, the tenant is responsible for payment to the landlord for reasonable costs incurred for the removal of all such devices and repairs to all damaged areas. E. Upon written request of a tenant in a dwelling unit, the landlord shall install a carbon monoxide alarm in the tenant's dwelling unit within 90 days. The landlord may charge the tenant a reasonable fee to recover the costs of the equipment and labor for such installation. The landlord's installation of a carbon monoxide alarm shall be in compliance with the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.). 1974, c. 680, § 55-248.18; 1993, c. 634; 1995, c. 601; 1999, c. 65; 2000, c. 760; 2001, c. 524; 2004, c. 307; 2008, cc. 489, 617; 2009, c. 663; 2011, c. 766; 2014, c. 632; 2015, c. 596; 2016, c. 744; 2017, c. 730; 2018, cc. 41, 81; 2019, c. 712; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 409; 2024, c. 46.

Va. Code § 55.1-1412

§ 55.1-1412. Security systems for nonresidential rental property.No landlord of a premises used for nonresidential purposes shall unreasonably withhold or delay consent for the tenant to install security systems within such premises. 1981, c. 81, § 55-226.1; 2019, c. 712. Article 4. Landlord Remedies.

Va. Code § 56-484.19

§ 56-484.19. Definitions.As used in this article: "Alternative method of providing call location information" means a method of maintaining and operating a multiline telephone system that ensures that: 1. Emergency calls from a telephone station provide the PSAP with sufficient location identification information to ensure that emergency responders are dispatched to a location at the facility from which the emergency call was placed, from which location emergency responders will be able to ascertain the telephone station where the emergency call was placed (i) by being able to view all of the telephone stations in the area contiguous to the telephone station from which the emergency call was placed or (ii) by the activation of an alerting system at the facility, which activation is triggered by the placing of the emergency call, and which readily allows arriving emergency responders to determine the physical location of the telephone station from which the emergency call was placed. A light or alarm located near the telephone station is an example of such an alerting system; 2. Emergency calls from a telephone station, in addition to reaching a PSAP, connect to or otherwise notify a switchboard operator, attendant, or other designated on-site individual who is capable of giving the PSAP the location of the telephone station from which the emergency call was placed; or 3. Calls to the digits "9-1-1" from a telephone station connect to a private emergency answering point. An alternative method of providing call location information shall also be deemed to be provided, as a result of the imputed ability of emergency responders to readily locate all telephone stations from which the emergency call could have been placed, when emergency calls provide calling party information corresponding to a contiguous area containing the telephone from which the emergency call was placed, of fewer than 7,000 square feet, located on one or more floors. "Automatic location identification" or "ALI" means the automatic display at a PSAP of information defining the emergency call location, which information shall identify the floor name or number, room name or number, building name or number, cubicle name or number, and office name or number, as applicable, or imparts other information that is sufficiently specific to provide the emergency responders with the ability to locate the telephone station from which the emergency call was placed. "Automatic number identification" or "ANI" means the automatic display at a PSAP of a telephone number that a PSAP may use to call the telephone station from which the emergency call was placed. "Calling party information" means information that is delivered by the MLTS provider to the PSAP that is used to provide the ANI and ALI function. "Central office system" means a business telephone service offered by a provider of communications services that provides features similar to a private branch exchange by transmitting data over telecommunications equipment or cable lines. "Emergency call" means a telephone call that enables the user to reach a PSAP by dialing the digits "9-1-1" and, if applicable, any additional digit or digits that must be dialed in order to permit the user to access the public switched telephone network. "Emergency call location" means the location of the telephone station on an MLTS from which an emergency call is placed and to which a PSAP may dispatch emergency responders based upon ALI provided via the emergency call. "Emergency responders" means fire services, law enforcement, emergency medical services, and other public services or agencies that may be dispatched by a PSAP in response to an emergency call. "Enhanced 9-1-1 service" means a service consisting of telephone network features and PSAPs that (i) enables users of telephone systems to reach a PSAP by making an emergency call; (ii) automatically directs emergency calls to the appropriate PSAPs by selective routing based on the geographical location from which the emergency call originated; and (iii) provides the capability for ANI and ALI features. "Facility" means real estate and improvements used principally for or as a (i) hotel as defined in § 35.1-1, (ii) dormitory at an institution of higher education, (iii) medical care facility as defined in § 32.1-3, (iv) group home or other residential facility licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or Department of Social Services, (v) assisted living facility as defined in § 63.2-100, (vi) apartment complex or condominium where shared tenant telephone service is provided, (vii) commercial or government office building, (viii) manufacturing, processing, assembly, warehouse, or distribution establishment, or (ix) retail establishment. "MLTS provider" means a person who operates a facility at which telephone service is provided, with or without compensation, through a multiline telephone system. "MLTS service provider" means a person offering or operating third party services that combine communications services, private branch exchange or central office systems, and multiline telephone systems where such services are provided to an MLTS provider on a fee-for-service basis. "Multiline telephone system" or "MLTS" means a telephone system, including network-based or premises-based systems, whether owned or leased by a public or private entity, operated in the Commonwealth, that serves a facility, has more than one telephone station, and is comprised of common control units, telephones, and control hardware and software that share a common interface to the public switched telephone network, whether by a private branch exchange or central office system, without regard to whether the system utilizes VoIP technology. "Person" includes any individual, corporation, partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality thereof. "Portable VoIP services" includes any MLTS utilizing a VoIP service and providing an end user with the capability to use the service at a location independent of the original physical location of telephone stations on the MLTS. "Private emergency answering point" means an answering point that is equipped and staffed during all hours that the facility is occupied to provide adequate means of responding to calls to the digits "9-1-1" from telephones on a multiline telephone system by reporting incidents to a PSAP in a manner that identifies the emergency response location from which the call to the answering point was placed. "Public safety answering point" or "PSAP" means a communications operation operated by or on behalf of a governmental entity that is equipped and staffed on a 24-hour basis to receive and process telephone calls for emergency assistance from an individual by dialing, in addition to any digits required to obtain an outside line, the digits "9-1-1." "Public switched telephone network" means the worldwide, interconnected networks of equipment, lines, and controls assembled to establish circuit-switched voice communication paths between calling and called parties. "Retail establishment" means any establishment selling goods or services to the ultimate user or consumer of those goods or services, not for the purpose of resale, but for that user's or consumer's personal rather than business use. "Telephone call" means the use of a telephone to initiate an ordinary voice transmission placed through the public switched telephone network. "Telephone station" means a telephone on a multiline telephone system, from which a call may be placed to a PSAP by dialing, in addition to any digits required to access the public switched telephone network, the digits "9-1-1." However, in any medical care facility or licensed assisted living facility, "telephone station" includes any telephone on a multiline telephone system located in an administrative office, nursing station, lobby, waiting area, or other area accessible to the general public but does not include a telephone located in the room of a patient or resident. "VoIP service" has the same meaning ascribed to it in § 56-484.12. 2007, c. 427; 2008, c. 853; 2009, cc. 813, 840.

Va. Code § 58.1-3295.3

§ 58.1-3295.3. Assessment of real property; data centers.A. As used in this section: "Computer equipment and peripherals" means computer equipment and peripherals subject to classification under the provisions of subdivision A 17 of § 58.1-3503 or under the provisions of subdivision A 43 of § 58.1-3506. "Cost approach" means assessing value by determining the cost to construct a reproduction or suitable replacement of fixtures and deducting physical, functional, and economic depreciation sustained by such fixtures. "Data center" means the same as such term is defined in subdivision A 43 of § 58.1-3506. "Fixtures" means all fixtures and equipment used in a data center except computer equipment and peripherals, equipment used for external surveillance and security, and fire and burglar alarm systems. "Fixtures" includes generators, radiators, exhaust fans, and fuel storage tanks; electrical substations, power distribution equipment, cogeneration equipment, and batteries; chillers, computer room air conditioners, and cool towers; heating, ventilating, and air conditioning systems; water storage tanks, water pumps, and piping; monitoring systems; and transmission and distribution equipment. B. If fixtures are installed at a data center and taxed under the provisions of this chapter, such fixtures shall be assessed using the cost approach. 2022, cc. 671, 672. Article 8. Reassessment Record/Land Book, Communication of Documents to Commissioner of Revenue.

Va. Code § 58.1-3506

§ 58.1-3506. Other classifications of tangible personal property for taxation.A. The items of property set forth below are each declared to be a separate class of property and shall constitute a classification for local taxation separate from other classifications of tangible personal property provided in this chapter: 1. a. Boats or watercraft weighing five tons or more, not used solely for business purposes; b. Boats or watercraft weighing less than five tons, not used solely for business purposes; 2. Aircraft having a maximum passenger seating capacity of no more than 50 that are owned and operated by scheduled air carriers operating under certificates of public convenience and necessity issued by the State Corporation Commission or the Civil Aeronautics Board; 3. Aircraft having a registered empty gross weight equal to or greater than 20,000 pounds that are not owned or operated by scheduled air carriers recognized under federal law, but not including any aircraft described in subdivision 4; 4. Aircraft that are (i) considered Warbirds, manufactured and intended for military use, excluding those manufactured after 1954, and (ii) used only for (a) exhibit or display to the general public and otherwise used for educational purposes (including such flights as are necessary for testing, maintaining, or preparing such aircraft for safe operation), or (b) airshow and flight demonstrations (including such flights necessary for testing, maintaining, or preparing such aircraft for safe operation), shall constitute a new class of property. Such class of property shall not include any aircraft used for commercial purposes, including transportation and other services for a fee; 5. All other aircraft not included in subdivision 2, 3, or 4 and flight simulators; 6. Antique motor vehicles as defined in § 46.2-100 which may be used for general transportation purposes as provided in subsection D of § 46.2-730; 7. Tangible personal property used in a research and development business; 8. Heavy construction machinery not used for business purposes, including land movers, bulldozers, front-end loaders, graders, packers, power shovels, cranes, pile drivers, forest harvesting and silvicultural activity equipment except as exempted under § 58.1-3505, and ditch and other types of diggers; 9. Generating equipment purchased after December 31, 1974, for the purpose of changing the energy source of a manufacturing plant from oil or natural gas to coal, wood, wood bark, wood residue, or any other alternative energy source for use in manufacturing and any cogeneration equipment purchased to achieve more efficient use of any energy source. Such generating equipment and cogeneration equipment shall include, without limitation, such equipment purchased by firms engaged in the business of generating electricity or steam, or both; 10. Vehicles without motive power, used or designed to be used as manufactured homes as defined in § 36-85.3; 11. Computer hardware used by businesses primarily engaged in providing data processing services to other nonrelated or nonaffiliated businesses; 12. Privately owned pleasure boats and watercraft, 18 feet and over, used for recreational purposes only; 13. Privately owned vans with a seating capacity of not less than seven nor more than 15 persons, including the driver, used exclusively pursuant to a ridesharing arrangement as defined in § 46.2-1400; 14. Motor vehicles specially equipped to provide transportation for individuals with physical disabilities; 15. Motor vehicles (i) owned by members of a volunteer emergency medical services agency or a member of a volunteer fire department or (ii) leased by volunteer emergency medical services personnel or a member of a volunteer fire department if the volunteer is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle. One motor vehicle that is owned by each volunteer member who meets the definition of "emergency medical services personnel" in § 32.1-111.1 or volunteer fire department member, or leased by each volunteer member who meets the definition of "emergency medical services personnel" in § 32.1-111.1 or volunteer fire department member if the volunteer is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle, may be specially classified under this section, provided the volunteer regularly responds to emergency calls. The volunteer shall furnish the commissioner of revenue, or other assessing officer, with a certification by the chief of the volunteer emergency medical services agency or volunteer fire department, that the volunteer is an individual who meets the definition of "emergency medical services personnel" in § 32.1-111.1 or a member of the volunteer fire department who regularly responds to calls or regularly performs other duties for the emergency medical services agency or fire department, and the motor vehicle owned or leased by the volunteer is identified. The certification shall be submitted by January 31 of each year to the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer; however, the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer shall be authorized, in his discretion, and for good cause shown and without fault on the part of the volunteer, to accept a certification after the January 31 deadline. In any county that prorates the assessment of tangible personal property pursuant to § 58.1-3516, a replacement vehicle may be certified and classified pursuant to this subsection when the vehicle certified as of the immediately prior January date is transferred during the tax year; 16. Motor vehicles (i) owned by auxiliary members of a volunteer emergency medical services agency or volunteer fire department or (ii) leased by auxiliary members of a volunteer emergency medical services agency or volunteer fire department if the auxiliary member is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle. One motor vehicle that is regularly used by each auxiliary volunteer fire department or emergency medical services agency member may be specially classified under this section. The auxiliary member shall furnish the commissioner of revenue, or other assessing officer, with a certification by the chief of the volunteer emergency medical services agency or volunteer fire department, that the volunteer is an auxiliary member of the volunteer emergency medical services agency or fire department who regularly performs duties for the emergency medical services agency or fire department, and the motor vehicle is identified as regularly used for such purpose; however, if a volunteer meets the definition of "emergency medical services personnel" in § 32.1-111.1 or volunteer fire department member and an auxiliary member are members of the same household, that household shall be allowed no more than two special classifications under this subdivision or subdivision 15. The certification shall be submitted by January 31 of each year to the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer; however, the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer shall be authorized, in his discretion, and for good cause shown and without fault on the part of the auxiliary member, to accept a certification after the January 31 deadline; 17. Motor vehicles owned by a nonprofit organization and used to deliver meals to homebound persons or provide transportation to senior citizens or individuals with disabilities in the community to carry out the purposes of the nonprofit organization; 18. Privately owned camping trailers as defined in § 46.2-100, and privately owned travel trailers as defined in § 46.2-1500, which are used for recreational purposes only, and privately owned trailers as defined in § 46.2-100, which are designed and used for the transportation of horses except those trailers described in subdivision A 11 of § 58.1-3505; 19. One motor vehicle owned and regularly used by a veteran who has either lost, or lost the use of, one or both legs, or an arm or a hand, or who is blind or who is permanently and totally disabled as certified by the Department of Veterans Services. In order to qualify, the veteran shall provide a written statement to the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer from the Department of Veterans Services that the veteran has been so designated or classified by the Department of Veterans Services as to meet the requirements of this section, and that his disability is service-connected. For purposes of this section, a person is blind if he meets the provisions of § 46.2-100; 20. Motor vehicles (i) owned by persons who have been appointed to serve as auxiliary police officers pursuant to Article 3 (§ 15.2-1731 et seq.) of Chapter 17 of Title 15.2 or (ii) leased by persons who have been so appointed to serve as auxiliary police officers if the person is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle. One motor vehicle that is regularly used by each auxiliary police officer to respond to auxiliary police duties may be specially classified under this section. In order to qualify for such classification, any auxiliary police officer who applies for such classification shall identify the vehicle for which this classification is sought, and shall furnish the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer with a certification from the governing body that has appointed such auxiliary police officer or from the official who has appointed such auxiliary officers. That certification shall state that the applicant is an auxiliary police officer who regularly uses a motor vehicle to respond to auxiliary police duties, and it shall state that the vehicle for which the classification is sought is the vehicle that is regularly used for that purpose. The certification shall be submitted by January 31 of each year to the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer; however, the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer shall be authorized, in his discretion, and for good cause shown and without fault on the part of the member, to accept a certification after the January 31 deadline; 21. Until the first to occur of June 30, 2029, or the date that a special improvements tax is no longer levied under § 15.2-4607 on property within a Multicounty Transportation Improvement District created pursuant to Chapter 46 (§ 15.2-4600 et seq.) of Title 15.2, tangible personal property that is used in manufacturing, testing, or operating satellites within a Multicounty Transportation Improvement District, provided that such business personal property is put into service within the District on or after July 1, 1999; 22. Motor vehicles which use clean special fuels as defined in § 46.2-749.3, which shall not include any vehicle described in subdivision 38 or 40; 23. Wild or exotic animals kept for public exhibition in an indoor or outdoor facility that is properly licensed by the federal government, the Commonwealth, or both, and that is properly zoned for such use. "Wild animals" means any animals that are found in the wild, or in a wild state, within the boundaries of the United States, its territories or possessions. "Exotic animals" means any animals that are found in the wild, or in a wild state, and are native to a foreign country; 24. Furniture, office, and maintenance equipment, exclusive of motor vehicles, that are owned and used by an organization whose real property is assessed in accordance with § 58.1-3284.1 and that is used by that organization for the purpose of maintaining or using the open or common space within a residential development; 25. Motor vehicles, trailers, and semitrailers with a gross vehicle weight of 10,000 pounds or more used to transport property or passengers for hire by a motor carrier engaged in interstate commerce; 26. All tangible personal property employed in a trade or business other than that described in subdivisions A 1 through A 20, except for subdivision A 18, of § 58.1-3503; 27. Programmable computer equipment and peripherals employed in a trade or business; 28. Privately owned pleasure boats and watercraft, motorized and under 18 feet, used for recreational purposes only; 29. Privately owned pleasure boats and watercraft, nonmotorized and under 18 feet, used for recreational purposes only; 30. Privately owned motor homes as defined in § 46.2-100 that are used for recreational purposes only; 31. Tangible personal property used in the provision of Internet services. For purposes of this subdivision, "Internet service" means a service, including an Internet Web-hosting service, that enables users to access content, information, electronic mail, and the Internet as part of a package of services sold to customers; 32. Motor vehicles (i) owned by persons who serve as auxiliary, reserve, volunteer, or special deputy sheriffs or (ii) leased by persons who serve as auxiliary, reserve, volunteer, or special deputy sheriffs if the person is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle. For purposes of this subdivision, the term "auxiliary deputy sheriff" means auxiliary, reserve, volunteer, or special deputy sheriff. One motor vehicle that is regularly used by each auxiliary deputy sheriff to respond to auxiliary deputy sheriff duties may be specially classified under this section. In order to qualify for such classification, any auxiliary deputy sheriff who applies for such classification shall identify the vehicle for which this classification is sought, and shall furnish the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer with a certification from the governing body that has appointed such auxiliary deputy sheriff or from the official who has appointed such auxiliary deputy sheriff. That certification shall state that the applicant is an auxiliary deputy sheriff who regularly uses a motor vehicle to respond to such auxiliary duties, and it shall state that the vehicle for which the classification is sought is the vehicle that is regularly used for that purpose. The certification shall be submitted by January 31 of each year to the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer; however, the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer shall be authorized, in his discretion, and for good cause shown and without fault on the part of the member, to accept a certification after the January 31 deadline; 33. Forest harvesting and silvicultural activity equipment, except as exempted under § 58.1-3505; 34. Equipment used primarily for research, development, production, or provision of biotechnology for the purpose of developing or providing products or processes for specific commercial or public purposes, including medical, pharmaceutical, nutritional, and other health-related purposes; agricultural purposes; or environmental purposes but not for human cloning purposes as defined in § 32.1-162.21 or for products or purposes related to human embryo stem cells. For purposes of this section, biotechnology equipment means equipment directly used in activities associated with the science of living things; 35. Boats or watercraft weighing less than five tons, used for business purposes only; 36. Boats or watercraft weighing five tons or more, used for business purposes only; 37. Tangible personal property which is owned and operated by a service provider who is not a CMRS provider and is not licensed by the FCC used to provide, for a fee, wireless broadband Internet service. For purposes of this subdivision, "wireless broadband Internet service" means a service that enables customers to access, through a wireless connection at an upload or download bit rate of more than one megabyte per second, Internet service, as defined in § 58.1-602, as part of a package of services sold to customers; 38. Low-speed vehicles as defined in § 46.2-100; 39. Motor vehicles with a seating capacity of not less than 30 persons, including the driver; 40. Motor vehicles powered solely by electricity; 41. Tangible personal property designed and used primarily for the purpose of manufacturing a product from renewable energy as defined in § 56-576; 42. Motor vehicles leased by a county, city, town, or constitutional officer if the locality or constitutional officer is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle; 43. Computer equipment and peripherals used in a data center. For purposes of this subdivision, "data center" means a facility whose primary services are the storage, management, and processing of digital data and is used to house (i) computer and network systems, including associated components such as servers, network equipment and appliances, telecommunications, and data storage systems; (ii) systems for monitoring and managing infrastructure performance; (iii) equipment used for the transformation, transmission, distribution, or management of at least one megawatt of capacity of electrical power and cooling, including substations, uninterruptible power supply systems, all electrical plant equipment, and associated air handlers; (iv) Internet-related equipment and services; (v) data communications connections; (vi) environmental controls; (vii) fire protection systems; and (viii) security systems and services; 44. Motor vehicles (i) owned by persons who serve as uniformed members of the Virginia Defense Force pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 44-54.4 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 44 or (ii) leased by persons who serve as uniformed members of the Virginia Defense Force pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 44-54.4 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 44 if the person is obligated by the terms of the lease to pay tangible personal property tax on the motor vehicle. One motor vehicle that is regularly used by a uniformed member of the Virginia Defense Force to respond to his official duties may be specially classified under this section. In order to qualify for such classification, any person who applies for such classification shall identify the vehicle for which the classification is sought and shall furnish to the commissioner of the revenue or other assessing officer a certification from the Adjutant General of the Department of Military Affairs under § 44-11. That certification shall state that (a) the applicant is a uniformed member of the Virginia Defense Force who regularly uses a motor vehicle to respond to his official duties, and (b) the vehicle for which the classification is sought is the vehicle that is regularly used for that purpose. The certification shall be submitted by January 31 of each year to the commissioner of the revenue or other assessing officer; however, the commissioner of revenue or other assessing officer shall be authorized, in his discretion, and for good cause shown and without fault on the part of the member, to accept a certification after the January 31 deadline; 45. If a locality has adopted an ordinance pursuant to subsection D of § 58.1-3703, tangible personal property of a business that qualifies under such ordinance for the first two tax years in which the business is subject to tax upon its personal property pursuant to this chapter. If a locality has not adopted such ordinance, this classification shall apply to the tangible personal property for such first two tax years of a business that otherwise meets the requirements of subsection D of § 58.1-3703; 46. Miscellaneous and incidental tangible personal property employed in a trade or business that is not classified as machinery and tools pursuant to Article 2 (§ 58.1-3507 et seq.), merchants' capital pursuant to Article 3 (§ 58.1-3509 et seq.), or short-term rental property pursuant to Article 3.1 (§ 58.1-3510.4 et seq.), and has an original cost of less than $500. A county, city, or town shall allow a taxpayer to provide an aggregate estimate of the total cost of all such property owned by the taxpayer that qualifies under this subdivision, in lieu of a specific, itemized list; 47. Commercial fishing vessels and property permanently attached to such vessels; and 48. The following classifications of vehicles: a. Automobiles as described in subdivision A 3 of § 58.1-3503; b. Trucks of less than two tons as described in subdivision A 4 of § 58.1-3503; c. Trucks and other vehicles as described in subdivision A 5 of § 58.1-3503; d. Motor vehicles with specially designed equipment for use by individuals with disabilities as described in subdivision A 9 of § 58.1-3503; and e. Motorcycles, mopeds, all-terrain vehicles, off-road motorcycles, campers, and other recreational vehicles as described in subdivision A 10 of § 58.1-3503. B. The governing body of any county, city, or town may levy a tax on the property enumerated in subsection A at different rates from the tax levied on other tangible personal property. The rates of tax and the rates of assessment shall (i) for purposes of subdivisions A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 11 through 20, 22 through 24, and 26 through 47, not exceed that applicable to the general class of tangible personal property, (ii) for purposes of subdivisions A 7, 9, 21, and 25, not exceed that applicable to machinery and tools, and (iii) for purposes of subdivision A 10, equal that applicable to real property. If an item of personal property is included in multiple classifications under subsection A, then the rate of tax shall be the lowest rate assigned to such classifications. C. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for any qualifying vehicle, as such term is defined in § 58.1-3523, (i) included in any separate class of property in subsection A and (ii) assessed for tangible personal property taxes by a county, city, or town receiving a payment from the Commonwealth under Chapter 35.1 (§ 58.1-3523 et seq.) for providing tangible personal property tax relief, the county, city, or town may levy the tangible personal property tax on such qualifying vehicle at a rate not to exceed the rates of tax and rates of assessment required under such chapter. Code 1950, §§ 58-829.2:1, 58-829.3, 58-829.5 to 58-829.9, 58-831.01; 1960, c. 418; 1970, c. 655; 1976, c. 567; 1978, c. 155; 1979, cc. 351, 576; 1980, c. 412; 1981, cc. 236, 445; 1982, c. 633; 1984, c. 675; 1985, c. 220; 1986, c. 195; 1988, c. 822; 1989, cc. 80, 694; 1990, cc. 677, 693; 1991, cc. 247, 330, 478; 1992, cc. 642, 680; 1993, c. 100; 1994, cc. 171, 221, 266, 631; 1995, c. 142; 1996, cc. 537, 603, 605; 1997, cc. 244, 250, 433, 457; 1999, cc. 289, 358; 2000, cc. 409, 413, 441, 442, 604; 2001, cc. 41, 447; 2002, cc. 6, 63, 148, 337; 2003, cc. 657, 670; 2004, cc. 4, 556, 591; 2004, Sp. Sess. I, c. 1; 2005, cc. 271, 325, 357; 2006, cc. 200, 231, 400; 2007, cc. 88, 322, 609; 2008, cc. 26, 94, 143; 2009, cc. 40, 44; 2010, cc. 264, 849; 2012, cc. 97, 288; 2013, cc. 39, 271, 287, 393, 652; 2014, cc. 50, 409; 2015, cc. 487, 502, 503, 593, 615; 2016, c. 483; 2017, cc. 116, 447; 2018, cc. 28, 292; 2020, cc. 64, 247, 251; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 347; 2022, cc. 30, 578; 2023, cc. 148, 149. Article 1.01. Alternative Tax Rates for Elderly Individuals and Individuals with Disabilities.

Va. Code § 59.1-207.48

§ 59.1-207.48. Exemptions.This chapter shall not apply to: 1. Any service provided by a supplier or its affiliate where either the supplier or its affiliate is doing business pursuant to a franchise issued by a political subdivision of the Commonwealth or a license, franchise, certificate, or other authorization issued by the State Corporation Commission to a public service company or public utility pursuant to Title 56; 2. Any service provided by a supplier or its affiliate where either the supplier or its affiliate is regulated by the State Corporation Commission, the Federal Communications Commission, or the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission; 3. Alarm company operators that are regulated pursuant to § 15.2-911; 4. A bank, bank holding company, or the subsidiary or affiliate of either, or a credit union or other financial institution, licensed under federal or state law; 5. Any home protection company regulated by the State Corporation Commission pursuant to Chapter 26 (§ 38.2-2600 et seq.) of Title 38.2; 6. Any home service contract provider regulated by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to Chapter 33.1 (§ 59.1-434.1 et seq.); 7. Any extended service contract provider regulated by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to Chapter 34 (§ 59.1-435 et seq.) or its affiliates; 8. Any insurer or entity regulated under Title 38.2 or an affiliate of such insurer or entity; or 9. Any health club registered pursuant to the Virginia Health Club Act (59.1-294 et seq.). 2018, c. 704; 2023, c. 288.

Va. Code § 64.2-308.7

§ 64.2-308.7. Decedent's non-probate transfers to the surviving spouse.Excluding property passing to the surviving spouse under the federal social security system, the value of the augmented estate includes the value of the decedent's non-probate transfers to the decedent's surviving spouse, which consist of all property that passed outside probate at the decedent's death from the decedent to the surviving spouse by reason of the decedent's death, including: 1. The decedent's fractional interest in property held as a joint tenant with the right of survivorship, to the extent that the decedent's fractional interest passed to the surviving spouse as surviving joint tenant; 2. The decedent's ownership interest in property or accounts held in co-ownership registration with the right of survivorship, or with Payable on Death or Transfer on Death designations to the extent the decedent's ownership interest passed to the surviving spouse as surviving co-owner; and 3. All other property that would have been included in the augmented estate under subdivision 1 or 2 of § 64.2-308.6 had it passed to or for the benefit of a person other than the decedent's spouse, surviving spouse, the decedent, or the decedent's creditors, estate, or estate creditors. 2016, cc. 187, 269.

Va. Code § 64.2-308.8

§ 64.2-308.8. Surviving spouse's property and non-probate transfers to others.A. Except to the extent included in the augmented estate under § 64.2-308.5 or 64.2-308.7, the value of the augmented estate includes the value of: 1. Property that was owned by the decedent's surviving spouse at the decedent's death, including: a. The surviving spouse's fractional interest in property held in joint tenancy with the right of survivorship; b. The surviving spouse's ownership interest in property or accounts held in co-ownership registration with the right of survivorship; and c. Property that passed to the surviving spouse by reason of the decedent's death, but not including the spouse's right to homestead allowance, family allowance, exempt property, or payments under the federal social security system. 2. Property that would have been included in the surviving spouse's non-probate transfers to others, other than the spouse's fractional and ownership interests included under subdivision 1 a or b, had the spouse been the decedent. B. Property included under this section is valued at the decedent's death, taking the fact that the decedent predeceased the spouse into account, but, for purposes of subdivision A 1 a or b, the values of the spouse's fractional and ownership interests are determined immediately before the decedent's death if the decedent was then a joint tenant or a co-owner of the property or accounts. For purposes of subdivision A 2, proceeds of insurance that would have been included in the spouse's non-probate transfers to others under subdivision 1 d of § 64.2-308.6 are not valued as if the spouse were deceased. C. The value of property included under this section is reduced by enforceable claims against the surviving spouse. 2016, cc. 187, 269.

Va. Code § 64.2-308.9

§ 64.2-308.9. Exclusions, valuation, and overlapping application.A. The value of any property is excluded from the decedent's non-probate transfers to others: 1. To the extent that the decedent received adequate and full consideration in money or money's worth for a transfer of the property; or 2. If the property was transferred with the written joinder of, or if the transfer was consented to in writing before or after the transfer by, the surviving spouse. B. 1. The value of any property otherwise included under § 64.2-308.5, 64.2-308.6, or 64.2-308.7, and its income or proceeds, is excluded from the decedent's net probate estate, decedent's non-probate transfers to others, and decedent's non-probate transfers to the surviving spouse to the extent that such property was transferred to or for the benefit of the decedent, before or during the marriage to the surviving spouse, by gift, will, transfer in trust, intestate succession, or any other method or form of transfer to the extent that it was (i) transferred without full consideration in money or money's worth from a person other than the surviving spouse and (ii) maintained by the decedent as separate property. 2. The value of any property otherwise included under § 64.2-308.8, and its income or proceeds, is excluded from the surviving spouse's property and non-probate transfers to others to the extent that such property was transferred to or for the benefit of the surviving spouse, before or during the marriage to the decedent, by gift, will, transfer in trust, intestate succession, or any other method or form of transfer to the extent that it was (i) transferred without full consideration in money or money's worth from a person other than the decedent and (ii) maintained by the surviving spouse as separate property. C. The value of property: 1. Included in the augmented estate under § 64.2-308.5, 64.2-308.6, 64.2-308.7, or 64.2-308.8 is reduced in each category by enforceable claims against the included property; and 2. Includes the commuted value of any present or future interest and the commuted value of amounts payable under any trust, life insurance settlement option, annuity contract, public or private pension, disability compensation, death benefit or retirement plan, or any similar arrangement, exclusive of the federal social security system. Except as provided herein for interests passing to a surviving spouse, life estates and remainder interests are valued in the manner prescribed in Chapter 5 (§ 55.1-500 et seq.) of Title 55.1 and deferred payments and estates for years are discounted to present value using the interest rate specified in § 55.1-500. In valuing partial and contingent interests passing to the surviving spouse, and beneficial interests in trust, the following special rules apply: a. The value of the beneficial interest of a spouse shall be the entire fair market value of any property held in trust if the decedent was the settlor of the trust, if the trust is held for the exclusive benefit of the surviving spouse during the surviving spouse's lifetime, and if the terms of the trust meet the following requirements: (1) During the lifetime of the surviving spouse, the trust is controlled by the surviving spouse or one or more trustees who are non-adverse parties; (2) The trustee shall distribute to or for the benefit of the surviving spouse the entire net income of the trust at least annually; (3) The trustee is permitted to distribute to or for the benefit of the surviving spouse out of the principal of the trust such amounts and at such times as the trustee, in its discretion, determines for the health, maintenance, and support of the surviving spouse; and (4) In exercising discretion, the trustee may be authorized or required to take into consideration all other income assets and other means of support available to the surviving spouse. b. To the extent that the partial or contingent interest is dependent upon the occurrence of any contingency that is not subject to the control of the surviving spouse and that is not subject to valuation by reference to the mortality and annuity tables set forth in §§ 55.1-501 through 55.1-506, the contingency will be conclusively presumed to result in the lowest possible value passing to the surviving spouse. c. To the extent that the valuation of a partial or contingent interest is dependent upon the life expectancy of the surviving spouse, that life expectancy shall be conclusively presumed to be no less than 10 years, regardless of the actual attained age of the surviving spouse at the decedent's death. D. In case of overlapping application to the same property of the subsections or subdivisions of § 64.2-308.6, 64.2-308.7, or 64.2-308.8, the property is included in the augmented estate under the provision yielding the greatest value, and under only one overlapping provision if they all yield the same value. 2016, cc. 187, 269; 2018, c. 301.

Va. Code § 8.01-226.5

§ 8.01-226.5:2. Immunity of hospital and emergency medical services agency personnel for the acceptance of certain infants.Any personnel of a hospital or emergency medical services agency receiving a child under the circumstances described in the second paragraph of § 18.2-371, subdivision B 2 of § 18.2-371.1, or subsection B of § 40.1-103 shall be immune from civil liability or criminal prosecution for injury or other damage to the child unless such injury or other damage is the result of gross negligence or willful misconduct by such personnel. Any hospital or emergency medical services agency that voluntarily installs a newborn safety device for the reception of children shall ensure that (i) the device is located inside the hospital or emergency medical services agency in an area that is conspicuous and visible to employees or personnel, (ii) the device is staffed 24 hours a day by a health care provider or emergency medical services personnel, (iii) the device is climate controlled and serves as a safe sleep environment for an infant, (iv) the device is equipped with a dual alarm system that sounds 60 seconds after a child is placed in the device and automatically places a call to 911 if the alarm is not deactivated within 60 seconds from within the hospital or emergency medical services agency, (v) the dual alarm system is visually checked at least two times per day and tested at least one time per week to ensure the alarm system is in working order, (vi) the device automatically locks when a child is placed in the device, and (vii) the device is identifiable by appropriate signage that shall include written and pictorial operational instructions. 2003, cc. 816, 822; 2015, cc. 502, 503; 2022, cc. 80, 81.

Va. Code § 8.01-44.4

§ 8.01-44.4. Action for shoplifting and employee theft.A. A merchant may recover a civil judgment against any adult or emancipated minor who shoplifts from that merchant for two times the unpaid retail value of the merchandise, but in no event an amount less than $50. However, if the merchant recovers the merchandise in merchantable condition, he shall be entitled to liquidated damages of no more than $350. B. A merchant may recover a civil judgment against any person who commits employee theft for two times the unpaid retail value of the merchandise, but in no event an amount less than $50. However, if the merchant recovers the merchandise in merchantable condition, he shall be entitled to liquidated damages of no more than $350. C. The prevailing party in any action brought pursuant to this section shall be entitled to reasonable attorneys' fees and costs not to exceed $150. D. A conviction of or a plea of guilty to a violation of any other statute is not a prerequisite to commencement of a civil action pursuant to this section or enforcement of a judgment. No action may be initiated under this section during the pendency of a criminal prosecution based on the same allegations of fact; however the initiation of any criminal action against the perpetrator for the alleged offense under § 18.2-95, 18.2-96, 18.2-102.1, or 18.2-103 or any other criminal offense defined under subsection F does not preclude a merchant from initiating or maintaining an action under this section once the prosecution has been concluded. A merchant may not recover more than the retail value of the merchandise, or more than the unpaid retail value of the merchandise if the merchandise is not recovered in a merchantable condition, for the same loss if both criminal and civil actions are initiated. However, nothing herein shall preclude a merchant from recovering damages in excess of the retail value of the merchandise, or the unpaid retail value of the merchandise if the merchandise is not recovered in a merchantable condition, if a criminal action is initiated. Nothing herein shall preclude a merchant from nonsuiting the civil action brought pursuant to this section and proceeding criminally under § 18.2-95, 18.2-96, 18.2-102.1, or 18.2-103 or any other criminal offense defined under subsection F. E. Prior to the commencement of any action under this section, a merchant may demand, in writing, that an individual who may be civilly liable under this section make appropriate payment to the merchant in consideration for the merchant's agreement not to commence any legal action under this section. F. For purposes of this section: "Employee theft" means the removal of any merchandise or cash from the premises of the merchant's establishment or the concealment of any merchandise or cash by a person employed by a merchant without the consent of the merchant and with the purpose or intent of appropriating the merchandise or cash to the employee's own or another's use without full payment. "Shoplift" means any one or more of the following acts committed by a person without the consent of the merchant and with the purpose or intent of appropriating merchandise to that person's own or another's use without payment, obtaining merchandise at less than its stated sales price, or otherwise depriving a merchant of all or any part of the value or use of merchandise: (i) removing any merchandise from the premises of the merchant's establishment; (ii) concealing any merchandise; (iii) substituting, altering, removing, or disfiguring any label or price tag; (iv) transferring any merchandise from a container in which that merchandise is displayed or packaged to any other container; (v) disarming any alarm tag attached to any merchandise; or (vi) obtaining or attempting to obtain possession of any merchandise by charging that merchandise to another person without the authority of that person or by charging that merchandise to a fictitious person. 1992, c. 721; 2005, cc. 142, 234; 2012, c. 526.

Va. Code § 9.1-102

§ 9.1-102. Powers and duties of the Board and the Department.The Department, under the direction of the Board, which shall be the policy-making body for carrying out the duties and powers hereunder, shall have the power and duty to: 1. Adopt regulations, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), for the administration of this chapter including the authority to require the submission of reports and information by law-enforcement officers within the Commonwealth. Any proposed regulations concerning the privacy, confidentiality, and security of criminal justice information shall be submitted for review and comment to any board, commission, or committee or other body which may be established by the General Assembly to regulate the privacy, confidentiality, and security of information collected and maintained by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof; 2. Establish compulsory minimum training standards subsequent to employment as a law-enforcement officer in (i) permanent positions and (ii) temporary or probationary status and establish the time required for completion of such training. Such compulsory minimum training standards shall include crisis intervention training in accordance with clause (i) of § 9.1-188; 3. Establish minimum training standards and qualifications for certification and recertification for law-enforcement officers serving as field training officers; 4. Establish compulsory minimum curriculum requirements for in-service and advanced courses and programs for schools, whether located in or outside the Commonwealth, which are operated for the specific purpose of training law-enforcement officers; 5. Establish (i) compulsory minimum training standards for law-enforcement officers who utilize radar or an electrical or microcomputer device to measure the speed of motor vehicles as provided in § 46.2-882 and establish the time required for completion of the training and (ii) compulsory minimum qualifications for certification and recertification of instructors who provide such training; 6. [Repealed]; 7. Establish compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service and advanced training standards for those persons designated to provide courthouse and courtroom security pursuant to the provisions of § 53.1-120, and to establish the time required for completion of such training; 8. Establish compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service and advanced training standards for deputy sheriffs designated to serve process pursuant to the provisions of § 8.01-293, and establish the time required for the completion of such training; 9. Establish compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards, as well as the time required for completion of such training, for persons employed as deputy sheriffs and jail officers by local criminal justice agencies and correctional officers employed by the Department of Corrections under the provisions of Title 53.1. For deputy sheriffs and jail officers who are employees of local or regional correctional facilities and correctional officers employed by the Department of Corrections, such standards shall include training on the general care of pregnant women, the impact of restraints on pregnant inmates and fetuses, the impact of being placed in restrictive housing or solitary confinement on pregnant inmates, and the impact of body cavity searches on pregnant inmates; 10. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for all dispatchers employed by or in any local or state government agency, whose duties include the dispatching of law-enforcement personnel. Such training standards shall apply only to dispatchers hired on or after July 1, 1988. Such training shall include training in the identification of, communication with, and facilitation of the safe return of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and dementia, which shall include (i) techniques for respectful and effective communication with individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and their caregivers; (ii) techniques for addressing the behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and dementia, including alternatives to physical restraint; (iii) protocols for identifying and reporting incidents of abuse, neglect, and exploitation of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia to adult protective services; (iv) protocols for contacting caregivers when an individual with Alzheimer's disease or dementia is found wandering or during an emergency or crisis situation; (v) a reference list of local resources available for individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia; and (vi) a reference list of local and national organizations that assist law-enforcement personnel with locating missing and wandering individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and returning them to their caregivers; 11. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for all auxiliary police officers employed by or in any local or state government agency. Such training shall be graduated and based on the type of duties to be performed by the auxiliary police officers. Such training standards shall not apply to auxiliary police officers exempt pursuant to § 15.2-1731; 12. Consult and cooperate with counties, municipalities, agencies of the Commonwealth, other state and federal governmental agencies, and institutions of higher education within or outside the Commonwealth, concerning the development of police training schools and programs or courses of instruction; 13. Approve institutions, curricula and facilities, whether located in or outside the Commonwealth, for school operation for the specific purpose of training law-enforcement officers; but this shall not prevent the holding of any such school whether approved or not; 14. Establish and maintain police training programs through such agencies and institutions as the Board deems appropriate; 15. Establish compulsory minimum qualifications of certification and recertification for instructors in criminal justice training academies approved by the Department; 16. Conduct and stimulate research by public and private agencies which shall be designed to improve police administration and law enforcement; 17. Make recommendations concerning any matter within its purview pursuant to this chapter; 18. Coordinate its activities with those of any interstate system for the exchange of criminal history record information, nominate one or more of its members to serve upon the council or committee of any such system, and participate when and as deemed appropriate in any such system's activities and programs; 19. Conduct inquiries and investigations it deems appropriate to carry out its functions under this chapter and, in conducting such inquiries and investigations, may require any criminal justice agency to submit information, reports, and statistical data with respect to its policy and operation of information systems or with respect to its collection, storage, dissemination, and usage of criminal history record information and correctional status information, and such criminal justice agencies shall submit such information, reports, and data as are reasonably required; 20. Conduct audits as required by § 9.1-131; 21. Conduct a continuing study and review of questions of individual privacy and confidentiality of criminal history record information and correctional status information; 22. Advise criminal justice agencies and initiate educational programs for such agencies with respect to matters of privacy, confidentiality, and security as they pertain to criminal history record information and correctional status information; 23. Maintain a liaison with any board, commission, committee, or other body which may be established by law, executive order, or resolution to regulate the privacy and security of information collected by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof; 24. Adopt regulations establishing guidelines and standards for the collection, storage, and dissemination of criminal history record information and correctional status information, and the privacy, confidentiality, and security thereof necessary to implement state and federal statutes, regulations, and court orders; 25. Operate a statewide criminal justice research center, which shall maintain an integrated criminal justice information system, produce reports, provide technical assistance to state and local criminal justice data system users, and provide analysis and interpretation of criminal justice statistical information; 26. Develop a comprehensive, statewide, long-range plan for strengthening and improving law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice throughout the Commonwealth, and periodically update that plan; 27. Cooperate with, and advise and assist, all agencies, departments, boards and institutions of the Commonwealth, and units of general local government, or combinations thereof, including planning district commissions, in planning, developing, and administering programs, projects, comprehensive plans, and other activities for improving law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice throughout the Commonwealth, including allocating and subgranting funds for these purposes; 28. Define, develop, organize, encourage, conduct, coordinate, and administer programs, projects and activities for the Commonwealth and units of general local government, or combinations thereof, in the Commonwealth, designed to strengthen and improve law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice at every level throughout the Commonwealth; 29. Review and evaluate programs, projects, and activities, and recommend, where necessary, revisions or alterations to such programs, projects, and activities for the purpose of improving law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice; 30. Coordinate the activities and projects of the state departments, agencies, and boards of the Commonwealth and of the units of general local government, or combination thereof, including planning district commissions, relating to the preparation, adoption, administration, and implementation of comprehensive plans to strengthen and improve law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice; 31. Do all things necessary on behalf of the Commonwealth and its units of general local government, to determine and secure benefits available under the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (P.L. 90-351, 82 Stat. 197), as amended, and under any other federal acts and programs for strengthening and improving law enforcement, the administration of criminal justice, and delinquency prevention and control; 32. Receive, administer, and expend all funds and other assistance available to the Board and the Department for carrying out the purposes of this chapter and the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968, as amended; 33. Apply for and accept grants from the United States government or any other source in carrying out the purposes of this chapter and accept any and all donations both real and personal, and grants of money from any governmental unit or public agency, or from any institution, person, firm or corporation, and may receive, utilize and dispose of the same. Any arrangements pursuant to this section shall be detailed in the annual report of the Board. Such report shall include the identity of the donor, the nature of the transaction, and the conditions, if any. Any moneys received pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the account of the Department. To these ends, the Board shall have the power to comply with conditions and execute such agreements as may be necessary; 34. Make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties and execution of its powers under this chapter, including but not limited to, contracts with the United States, units of general local government or combinations thereof, in Virginia or other states, and with agencies and departments of the Commonwealth; 35. Adopt and administer reasonable regulations for the planning and implementation of programs and activities and for the allocation, expenditure and subgranting of funds available to the Commonwealth and to units of general local government, and for carrying out the purposes of this chapter and the powers and duties set forth herein; 36. Certify and decertify law-enforcement officers in accordance with §§ 15.2-1706 and 15.2-1707 and provide for a decertification review process in accordance with § 15.2-1708; 37. Establish training standards and publish and periodically update model policies for law-enforcement personnel in the following subjects: a. The handling of family abuse, domestic violence, sexual assault, and stalking cases, including standards for determining the predominant physical aggressor in accordance with § 19.2-81.3. The Department shall provide technical support and assistance to law-enforcement agencies in carrying out the requirements set forth in subsection A of § 9.1-1301; b. The identification of, communication with, and facilitation of the safe return of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and dementia, which shall include (i) techniques for respectful and effective communication with individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and their caregivers; (ii) techniques for addressing the behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and dementia, including alternatives to physical restraint; (iii) protocols for identifying and reporting incidents of abuse, neglect, and exploitation of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia to adult protective services; (iv) protocols for contacting caregivers when an individual with Alzheimer's disease or dementia is found wandering or during an emergency or crisis situation; (v) a reference list of local resources available for individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia; and (vi) a reference list of local and national organizations that assist law-enforcement personnel with locating missing and wandering individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and returning them to their caregivers; c. Sensitivity to and awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and the potential for racially biased policing and bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1, which shall include recognizing implicit biases in interacting with persons who have a mental illness, substance use disorder, or developmental or cognitive disability; d. Protocols for local and regional sexual assault and human trafficking response teams; e. Communication of death notifications; f. The questioning of individuals suspected of driving while intoxicated concerning the physical location of such individual's last consumption of an alcoholic beverage and the communication of such information to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority; g. Vehicle patrol duties that embody current best practices for pursuits and for responding to emergency calls; h. Criminal investigations that embody current best practices for conducting photographic and live lineups; i. Sensitivity to and awareness of human trafficking offenses and the identification of victims of human trafficking offenses for personnel involved in criminal investigations or assigned to vehicle or street patrol duties; j. The recognition, prevention, and reporting of human trafficking; k. Missing children, missing adults, and search and rescue protocol; l. The handling and use of tear gas or other gases and kinetic impact munitions, as defined in § 19.2-83.3, that embody current best practices for using such items as a crowd control measure or during an arrest or detention of another person; and m. The use of naloxone or other opioid antagonists to prevent opioid overdose deaths, in coordination with statewide naloxone training programs developed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and the Virginia Department of Health; 38. Establish compulsory training standards for basic training and the recertification of law-enforcement officers to ensure (i) sensitivity to and awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and the potential for racially biased policing and bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1, which shall include recognizing implicit biases in interacting with persons who have a mental illness, substance use disorder, or developmental or cognitive disability; (ii) training in de-escalation techniques; and (iii) training in the lawful use of force, including the use of deadly force, as defined in § 19.2-83.3, only when necessary to protect the law-enforcement officer or another person; 39. Review and evaluate community-policing programs in the Commonwealth, and recommend where necessary statewide operating procedures, guidelines, and standards that strengthen and improve such programs, including sensitivity to and awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and the potential for racially biased policing and bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1, which shall include recognizing implicit biases in interacting with persons who have a mental illness, substance use disorder, or developmental or cognitive disability; 40. Establish a Virginia Law-Enforcement Accreditation Center. The Center may, in cooperation with Virginia law-enforcement agencies, provide technical assistance and administrative support, including staffing, for the establishment of voluntary state law-enforcement accreditation standards. The Center may provide accreditation assistance and training, resource material, and research into methods and procedures that will assist the Virginia law-enforcement community efforts to obtain Virginia accreditation status; 41. Promote community policing philosophy and practice throughout the Commonwealth by providing community policing training and technical assistance statewide to all law-enforcement agencies, community groups, public and private organizations and citizens; developing and distributing innovative policing curricula and training tools on general community policing philosophy and practice and contemporary critical issues facing Virginia communities; serving as a consultant to Virginia organizations with specific community policing needs; facilitating continued development and implementation of community policing programs statewide through discussion forums for community policing leaders, development of law-enforcement instructors; promoting a statewide community policing initiative; and serving as a statewide information source on the subject of community policing including, but not limited to periodic newsletters, a website and an accessible lending library; 42. Establish, in consultation with the Department of Education and the Virginia State Crime Commission, compulsory minimum standards for employment and job-entry and in-service training curricula and certification requirements for school security officers, including school security officers described in clause (b) of § 22.1-280.2:1, which training and certification shall be administered by the Virginia Center for School and Campus Safety (VCSCS) pursuant to § 9.1-184. Such training standards shall be specific to the role and responsibility of school security officers and shall include (i) relevant state and federal laws; (ii) school and personal liability issues; (iii) security awareness in the school environment; (iv) mediation and conflict resolution, including de-escalation techniques such as a physical alternative to restraint; (v) disaster and emergency response; (vi) awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and implicit bias; (vii) working with students with disabilities, mental health needs, substance use disorders, and past traumatic experiences; and (viii) student behavioral dynamics, including child and adolescent development and brain research. The Department shall establish an advisory committee consisting of local school board representatives, principals, superintendents, and school security personnel to assist in the development of the standards and certification requirements in this subdivision. The Department shall require any school security officer who carries a firearm in the performance of his duties to provide proof that he has completed a training course provided by a federal, state, or local law-enforcement agency that includes training in active shooter emergency response, emergency evacuation procedure, and threat assessment; 43. License and regulate property bail bondsmen and surety bail bondsmen in accordance with Article 11 (§ 9.1-185 et seq.); 44. License and regulate bail enforcement agents in accordance with Article 12 (§ 9.1-186 et seq.); 45. In conjunction with the Virginia State Police and the State Compensation Board, advise criminal justice agencies regarding the investigation, registration, and dissemination of information requirements as they pertain to the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry Act (§ 9.1-900 et seq.); 46. Establish minimum standards for (i) employment, (ii) job-entry and in-service training curricula, and (iii) certification requirements for campus security officers. Such training standards shall include, but not be limited to, the role and responsibility of campus security officers, relevant state and federal laws, school and personal liability issues, security awareness in the campus environment, and disaster and emergency response. The Department shall provide technical support and assistance to campus police departments and campus security departments on the establishment and implementation of policies and procedures, including but not limited to: the management of such departments, investigatory procedures, judicial referrals, the establishment and management of databases for campus safety and security information sharing, and development of uniform record keeping for disciplinary records and statistics, such as campus crime logs, judicial referrals and Clery Act statistics. The Department shall establish an advisory committee consisting of college administrators, college police chiefs, college security department chiefs, and local law-enforcement officials to assist in the development of the standards and certification requirements and training pursuant to this subdivision; 47. Assess and report, in accordance with § 9.1-190, the crisis intervention team programs established pursuant to § 9.1-187; 48. In conjunction with the Office of the Attorney General, advise law-enforcement agencies and attorneys for the Commonwealth regarding the identification, investigation, and prosecution of human trafficking offenses using the common law and existing criminal statutes in the Code of Virginia; 49. Register tow truck drivers in accordance with § 46.2-116 and carry out the provisions of § 46.2-117; 50. Administer the activities of the Virginia Sexual and Domestic Violence Program Professional Standards Committee by providing technical assistance and administrative support, including staffing, for the Committee; 51. In accordance with § 9.1-102.1, design and approve the issuance of photo-identification cards to private security services registrants registered pursuant to Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.); 52. In consultation with the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia and the Virginia Association of Campus Law Enforcement Administrators, develop multidisciplinary curricula on trauma-informed sexual assault investigation; 53. In consultation with the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, develop a model addiction recovery program that may be administered by sheriffs, deputy sheriffs, jail officers, administrators, or superintendents in any local or regional jail. Such program shall be based on any existing addiction recovery programs that are being administered by any local or regional jails in the Commonwealth. Participation in the model addiction recovery program shall be voluntary, and such program may address aspects of the recovery process, including medical and clinical recovery, peer-to-peer support, availability of mental health resources, family dynamics, and aftercare aspects of the recovery process; 54. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for certification and recertification of law-enforcement officers serving as school resource officers. Such training shall be specific to the role and responsibility of a law-enforcement officer working with students in a school environment and shall include (i) relevant state and federal laws; (ii) school and personal liability issues; (iii) security awareness in the school environment; (iv) mediation and conflict resolution, including de-escalation techniques; (v) disaster and emergency response; (vi) awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and implicit bias; (vii) working with students with disabilities, mental health needs, substance use disorders, or past traumatic experiences; and (viii) student behavioral dynamics, including current child and adolescent development and brain research; 55. Establish a model policy for the operation of body-worn camera systems as defined in § 15.2-1723.1 that also addresses the storage and maintenance of body-worn camera system records; 56. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for detector canine handlers employed by the Department of Corrections, standards for the training and retention of detector canines used by the Department of Corrections, and a central database on the performance and effectiveness of such detector canines that requires the Department of Corrections to submit comprehensive information on each canine handler and detector canine, including the number and types of calls and searches, substances searched for and whether or not detected, and the number of false positives, false negatives, true positives, and true negatives; 57. Establish compulsory training standards for basic training of law-enforcement officers for recognizing and managing stress, self-care techniques, and resiliency; 58. Establish guidelines and standards for psychological examinations conducted pursuant to subsection C of § 15.2-1705; 59. Establish compulsory in-service training standards, to include frequency of retraining, for law-enforcement officers in the following subjects: (i) relevant state and federal laws; (ii) awareness of cultural diversity and the potential for bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1; (iii) de-escalation techniques; (iv) working with individuals with disabilities, mental health needs, or substance use disorders; and (v) the lawful use of force, including the use of deadly force, as defined in § 19.2-83.3, only when necessary to protect the law-enforcement officer or another person; 60. Develop a model curriculum and lesson plans for the compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards to be employed by criminal justice training academies approved by the Department when conducting training; 61. Adopt statewide professional standards of conduct applicable to all certified law-enforcement officers and certified jail officers and appropriate due process procedures for decertification based on serious misconduct in violation of those standards and provide for a decertification review process in accordance with § 15.2-1708; 62. Establish and administer a waiver process, in accordance with §§ 2.2-5515 and 15.2-1721.1, for law-enforcement agencies to use certain military property. Any waivers granted by the Criminal Justice Services Board shall be published by the Department on the Department's website; 63. Establish compulsory training standards for basic training and the recertification of law-enforcement officers to include crisis intervention training in accordance with clause (ii) of § 9.1-188; 64. Advise and assist the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, and support local law-enforcement cooperation, with the development and implementation of the Marcus alert system, as defined in § 37.2-311.1, including the establishment of local protocols for law-enforcement participation in the Marcus alert system pursuant to § 9.1-193 and for reporting requirements pursuant to §§ 9.1-193 and 37.2-311.1; 65. Develop an online course to train hotel proprietors and their employees to recognize and report instances of suspected human trafficking; 66. Develop an online course to train unarmed security officers, armed security officers, couriers, security canine handlers, and alarm respondents to recognize and report instances of suspected human trafficking to meet the compulsory minimum, entry-level, and in-service training standards as required by § 9.1-141; 67. Establish standards and procedures for when the Board may grant a petition for reinstatement of certification of a decertified officer pursuant to subsection E of § 15.2-1708; 68. Establish compulsory minimum and in-service training standards for law-enforcement officers on communicating with individuals with an intellectual disability or a developmental disability as defined in § 37.2-100, such as autism spectrum disorder as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association, which shall include (i) an overview and behavioral recognition of autism spectrum disorder, (ii) best practices for crisis prevention and de-escalation techniques, (iii) an objective review of any relevant tools and technology available to assist in communication, and (iv) education on law-enforcement agency and community resources for the autism community on future crisis prevention. Such training standards shall be established in consultation with at least one individual with autism spectrum disorder, one family member of an individual with autism spectrum disorder, one specialist who works with individuals with autism spectrum disorder, one representative from the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, and one representative from a state or local law-enforcement agency; 69. Develop an online course for the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority to offer to retail licensees and their employees to train such licensees and employees to recognize and report instances of suspected human trafficking; 70. Establish a model policy for best practices for law-enforcement officers responding to or investigating an overdose, when prescriber information has been obtained during the course of such response or investigation, to notify the prescriber of any controlled substance found to be in the possession of or believed to have been ingested by the victim that such prescription of a controlled substance was involved in an overdose. Such model policy shall include that a notification to a prescriber of a controlled substance shall not be required if such notification would jeopardize an active law-enforcement investigation; 71. Establish a training curriculum for law-enforcement agencies, law-enforcement officers, and special conservators of the peace on the discretion such officers can exercise regarding arrests as provided in Chapter 7 (§ 19.2-71 et seq.) of Title 19.2. Such training shall include (i) instruction on the scope and nature of law-enforcement officer discretion in arrest decisions, with particular emphasis on encounters with individuals experiencing a mental health crisis, including individuals currently subject to an emergency custody order pursuant to § 37.2-808, a temporary detention order pursuant to § 37.2-809, or an involuntary admission order pursuant to § 37.2-817, and (ii) instruction on the immediate and long-term effects of arrests on individuals in need of mental health services due to a mental health crisis, including impacts on treatment outcomes as identified in substantially accepted peer-reviewed research literature; 72. Establish a model policy for the provision of security at nonprofit institutions that serve individuals and communities at risk of hate crimes as defined in § 52-8.5 within the Commonwealth, incorporating relevant information about various traditions, services, or activities that any law-enforcement officer, unarmed security officer, or armed security officer providing such security may encounter; and 73. Perform such other acts as may be necessary or convenient for the effective performance of its duties. 1981, c. 632, § 9-170; 1982, c. 473; 1984, cc. 515; 779; 1986, c. 128; 1988, cc. 46, 560; 1990, c. 632; 1991, c. 345; 1994, cc. 850, 905; 1996, cc. 154, 866, 952; 1998, cc. 31, 471, 523; 1999, cc. 307, 495; 2000, c. 561; 2001, cc. 162, 210, 434, 458, 844; 2002, cc. 490, 810, 818, 836, 868; 2004, cc. 397, 460, 972, 980, 1016; 2005, cc. 868, 881; 2006, cc. 203, 233, 857, 914; 2008, cc. 328, 600, 771; 2009, c. 715; 2010, c. 224; 2011, cc. 579, 635, 719, 821, 854; 2012, cc. 140, 159, 803, 827, 835; 2014, cc. 7, 158, 265; 2015, cc. 38, 205, 222, 223, 278, 402, 730; 2016, cc. 197, 235, 256, 481, 560; 2017, cc. 311, 758; 2019, cc. 366, 487, 488, 493; 2020, cc. 123, 184, 526, 535, 638, 1206, 1262; 2020, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 27, 32, 36, 37, 41, 42, 48, 55; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 467; 2022, cc. 45, 46, 751; 2023, c. 331; 2024, cc. 141, 366, 367, 494, 556, 698, 742, 773; 2025, cc. 231, 273, 619, 639, 667, 698.

Va. Code § 9.1-138

§ 9.1-138. Definitions.In addition to the definitions set forth in § 9.1-101, as used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning: "Alarm respondent" means an individual who responds to the signal of an alarm for the purpose of detecting an intrusion of the home, business or property of the end user. "Armed" means a private security registrant who carries or has immediate access to a firearm in the performance of his duties. "Armed security officer" means a natural person employed to (i) safeguard and protect persons and property or (ii) deter theft, loss, or concealment of any tangible or intangible personal property on the premises he is contracted to protect, and who carries or has access to a firearm in the performance of his duties. "Armored car personnel" means persons who transport or offer to transport under armed security from one place to another, money, negotiable instruments or other valuables in a specially equipped motor vehicle with a high degree of security and certainty of delivery. "Business advertising material" means display advertisements in telephone directories, letterhead, business cards, local newspaper advertising, contracts, and any electronic medium, including the Internet, social media, and digital advertising. "Central station dispatcher" means an individual who monitors burglar alarm signal devices, burglar alarms or any other electrical, mechanical or electronic device used (i) to prevent or detect burglary, theft, shoplifting, pilferage or similar losses; (ii) to prevent or detect intrusion; or (iii) primarily to summon aid for other emergencies. "Certification" means the method of regulation indicating that qualified persons have met the minimum requirements as private security services training schools, private security services instructors, compliance agents, or certified detector canine handler examiners. "Compliance agent" means an individual who owns or is employed by a licensed private security services business to ensure the compliance of the private security services business with this title. "Computer or digital forensic services" means the use of highly specialized expertise for the recovery, authentication, and analysis of electronic data or computer usage. "Courier" means any armed person who transports or offers to transport from one place to another documents or other papers, negotiable or nonnegotiable instruments, or other small items of value that require expeditious services. "Detector canine" means any dog that detects drugs or explosives. "Detector canine handler" means any individual who uses a detector canine in the performance of private security duties. "Detector canine handler examiner" means any individual who examines the proficiency and reliability of detector canines and detector canine handlers in the detection of drugs or explosives. "Detector canine team" means the detector canine handler and his detector canine performing private security duties. "Electronic security business" means any person who engages in the business of or undertakes to (i) install, service, maintain, design or consult in the design of any electronic security equipment to an end user; (ii) respond to or cause a response to electronic security equipment for an end user; or (iii) have access to confidential information concerning the design, extent, status, password, contact list, or location of an end user's electronic security equipment. "Electronic security employee" means an individual who is employed by an electronic security business in any capacity which may give him access to information concerning the design, extent, status, password, contact list, or location of an end user's electronic security equipment. "Electronic security equipment" means (i) electronic or mechanical alarm signaling devices including burglar alarms or holdup alarms used to safeguard and protect persons and property; or (ii) cameras used to detect intrusions, concealment or theft, to safeguard and protect persons and property. This shall not include tags, labels, and other devices that are attached or affixed to items offered for sale, library books, and other protected articles as part of an electronic article surveillance and theft detection and deterrence system. "Electronic security sales representative" means an individual who sells electronic security equipment on behalf of an electronic security business to the end user. "Electronic security technician" means an individual who installs, services, maintains or repairs electronic security equipment. "Electronic security technician's assistant" means an individual who works as a laborer under the supervision of the electronic security technician in the course of his normal duties, but who may not make connections to any electronic security equipment. "Employed" means to be in an employer/employee relationship where the employee is providing work in exchange for compensation and the employer directly controls the employee's conduct and pays some taxes on behalf of the employee. The term "employed" shall not be construed to include independent contractors. "End user" means any person who purchases or leases electronic security equipment for use in that person's home or business. "Firearms training verification" means the verification of successful completion of either initial or retraining requirements for handgun or shotgun training, or both. "General public" means individuals who have access to areas open to all and not restricted to any particular class of the community. "Key cutting" means making duplicate keys from an existing key and includes no other locksmith services. "License number" means the official number issued to a private security services business licensed by the Department. "Locksmith" means any individual that performs locksmith services, or advertises or represents to the general public that the individual is a locksmith even if the specific term locksmith is substituted with any other term by which a reasonable person could construe that the individual possesses special skills relating to locks or locking devices, including use of the words lock technician, lockman, safe technician, safeman, boxman, unlocking technician, lock installer, lock opener, physical security technician or similar descriptions. "Locksmith services" mean selling, servicing, rebuilding, repairing, rekeying, repinning, changing the combination to an electronic or mechanical locking device; programming either keys to a device or the device to accept electronic controlled keys; originating keys for locks or copying keys; adjusting or installing locks or deadbolts, mechanical or electronic locking devices, egress control devices, safes, and vaults; opening, defeating or bypassing locks or latching mechanisms in a manner other than intended by the manufacturer; with or without compensation for the general public or on property not his own nor under his own control or authority. "Natural person" means an individual person. "Personal protection specialist" means any individual who engages in the duties of providing close protection from bodily harm to any person. "Private investigator" means any individual who engages in the business of, or accepts employment to make, investigations to obtain information on (i) crimes or civil wrongs; (ii) the location, disposition, or recovery of stolen property; (iii) the cause of accidents, fires, damages, or injuries to persons or to property; or (iv) evidence to be used before any court, board, officer, or investigative committee. "Private security services business" means any person engaged in the business of providing, or who undertakes to provide, armored car personnel, security officers, personal protection specialists, private investigators, couriers, security canine handlers, security canine teams, detector canine handlers, detector canine teams, alarm respondents, locksmiths, central station dispatchers, electronic security employees, electronic security sales representatives or electronic security technicians and their assistants to another person under contract, express or implied. "Private security services instructor" means any individual certified by the Department to provide mandated instruction in private security subjects for a certified private security services training school. "Private security services registrant" means any qualified individual who has met the requirements under this article to perform the duties of alarm respondent, locksmith, armored car personnel, central station dispatcher, courier, electronic security sales representative, electronic security technician, electronic security technician's assistant, personal protection specialist, private investigator, security canine handler, detector canine handler, unarmed security officer or armed security officer. "Private security services training school" means any person certified by the Department to provide instruction in private security subjects for the training of private security services business personnel in accordance with this article. "Registration" means a method of regulation whereby certain personnel employed by a private security services business are required to register with the Department pursuant to this article. "Registration category" means any one of the following categories: (i) unarmed security officer and armed security officer/courier, (ii) security canine handler, (iii) armored car personnel, (iv) private investigator, (v) personal protection specialist, (vi) alarm respondent, (vii) central station dispatcher, (viii) electronic security sales representative, (ix) electronic security technician, (x) electronic technician's assistant, (xi) detector canine handler, or (xii) locksmith. "Security canine" means a dog that has attended, completed, and been certified as a security canine by a certified security canine handler instructor in accordance with approved Department procedures and certification guidelines. "Security canines" shall not include detector dogs. "Security canine handler" means any individual who utilizes his security canine in the performance of private security duties. "Security canine team" means the security canine handler and his security canine performing private security duties. "Supervisor" means any individual who directly or indirectly supervises registered or certified private security services business personnel. "Unarmed security officer" means a natural person who performs the functions of observation, detection, reporting, or notification of appropriate authorities or designated agents regarding persons or property on the premises he is contracted to protect, and who does not carry or have access to a firearm in the performance of his duties. 1976, c. 737, § 54-729.27; 1977, c. 376, § 54.1-1900; 1980, c. 425, cc. 57, 779; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 578, § 9-183.1; 1994, cc. 45, 335, 810; 1995, c. 79; 1996, c. 541; 1997, c. 80; 1998, cc. 122, 807; 1999, c. 33; 2001, cc. 821, 844; 2003, c. 124; 2004, c. 470; 2005, c. 365; 2008, c. 638; 2009, c. 375; 2011, c. 263; 2017, c. 85.

Va. Code § 9.1-139

§ 9.1-139. Licensing, certification, and registration required; qualifications; temporary licenses.A. No person shall engage in the private security services business or solicit private security business in the Commonwealth without having obtained a license from the Department. No person shall be issued a private security services business license until a compliance agent is designated in writing on forms provided by the Department. The compliance agent shall ensure the compliance of the private security services business with this article and shall meet the qualifications and perform the duties required by the regulations adopted by the Board. B. No person shall act as a private security services training school or solicit students for private security training in the Commonwealth without being certified by the Department. No person shall be issued a private security services training school certification until a school director is designated in writing on forms provided by the Department. The school director shall ensure the compliance of the school with the provisions of this article and shall meet the qualifications and perform the duties required by the regulations adopted by the Board. C. No person shall be employed by a licensed private security services business in the Commonwealth as armored car personnel, courier, armed security officer, detector canine handler, unarmed security officer, security canine handler, private investigator, personal protection specialist, alarm respondent, locksmith, central station dispatcher, electronic security sales representative, electronic security technician's assistant, or electronic security technician without possessing a valid registration issued by the Department, except as provided in this article. Notwithstanding any other provision of this article, a licensed private security services business may hire as an independent contractor a personal protection specialist or private investigator who has been issued a registration by the Department. D. A temporary license may be issued in accordance with Board regulations for the purpose of awaiting the results of the state and national fingerprint search. However, no person shall be issued a temporary license until (i) he has designated a compliance agent who has complied with the compulsory minimum training standards established by the Board pursuant to subsection A of § 9.1-141 for compliance agents, (ii) each principal of the business has submitted his fingerprints for a National Criminal Records search and a Virginia Criminal History Records search, and (iii) he has met all other requirements of this article and Board regulations. E. No person shall be employed by a licensed private security services business in the Commonwealth unless such person is certified or registered in accordance with this chapter. F. A temporary registration may be issued in accordance with Board regulations for the purpose of awaiting the results of the state and national fingerprint search. However, no person shall be issued a temporary registration until he has (i) complied with, or been exempted from the compulsory minimum training standards established by the Board, pursuant to subsection A of § 9.1-141, for armored car personnel, couriers, armed security officers, detector canine handlers, unarmed security officers, security canine handlers, private investigators, personal protection specialists, alarm respondents, locksmith, central station dispatchers, electronic security sales representatives, electronic security technician's assistants, or electronic security technicians, (ii) submitted his fingerprints to be used for the conduct of a National Criminal Records search and a Virginia Criminal History Records search, and (iii) met all other requirements of this article and Board regulations. G. A temporary certification as a private security instructor or private security training school may be issued in accordance with Board regulations for the purpose of awaiting the results of the state and national fingerprint search. However, no person shall be issued a temporary certification as a private security services instructor until he has (i) met the education, training and experience requirements established by the Board and (ii) submitted his fingerprints to be used for the conduct of a National Criminal Records search and a Virginia Criminal History Records search. No person shall be issued a temporary certification as a private security services training school until (a) he has designated a training director, (b) each principal of the training school has submitted his fingerprints to be used for the conduct of a National Criminal Records search and a Virginia Criminal History Records search, and (c) he has met all other requirements of this article and Board regulations. H. A licensed private security services business in the Commonwealth shall not employ as an unarmed security officer, electronic security technician's assistant, unarmed alarm respondent, central station dispatcher, electronic security sales representative, locksmith, or electronic security technician, any person who has not complied with, or been exempted from, the compulsory minimum training standards established by the Board, pursuant to subsection A of § 9.1-141, except that such person may be so employed for not more than 90 days while completing compulsory minimum training standards. I. No person shall be employed as an electronic security employee, electronic security technician's assistant, unarmed alarm respondent, locksmith, central station dispatcher, electronic security sales representative, electronic security technician or supervisor until he has submitted his fingerprints to the Department to be used for the conduct of a National Criminal Records search and a Virginia Criminal History Records search. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to an out-of-state central station dispatcher meeting the requirements of subdivision 19 of § 9.1-140. J. The compliance agent of each licensed private security services business in the Commonwealth shall maintain documentary evidence that each private security registrant and certified employee employed by his private security services business has complied with, or been exempted from, the compulsory minimum training standards required by the Board. Before January 1, 2003, the compliance agent shall ensure that an investigation to determine suitability of each unarmed security officer employee has been conducted, except that any such unarmed security officer, upon initiating a request for such investigation under the provisions of subdivision A 11 of § 19.2-389, may be employed for up to 30 days pending completion of such investigation. After January 1, 2003, no person shall be employed as an unarmed security officer until he has submitted his fingerprints to the Department for the conduct of a National Criminal Records search and a Virginia Criminal History Records search. Any person who was employed as an unarmed security officer prior to January 1, 2003, shall submit his fingerprints to the Department in accordance with subsection B of § 9.1-145. K. No person with a criminal conviction for a misdemeanor involving (i) moral turpitude, (ii) assault and battery, (iii) damage to real or personal property, (iv) controlled substances or imitation controlled substances as defined in Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2, (v) prohibited sexual behavior as described in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2, or (vi) firearms, or any felony shall be (a) employed as a registered or certified employee by a private security services business or training school, or (b) issued a private security services registration, certification as an unarmed security officer, electronic security employee or technician's assistant, a private security services training school or instructor certification, compliance agent certification, or a private security services business license, except that, upon written request, the Director of the Department may waive such prohibition. Any grant or denial of such waiver shall be made in writing within 30 days of receipt of the written request and shall state the reasons for such decision. L. The Department may grant a temporary exemption from the requirement for licensure, certification, or registration for a period of not more than 30 days in a situation deemed an emergency by the Department. M. All private security services businesses and private security services training schools in the Commonwealth shall include their license or certification number on all business advertising materials. N. A licensed private security services business in the Commonwealth shall not employ as armored car personnel any person who has not complied with, or been exempted from, the compulsory minimum training standards established by the Board pursuant to subsection A of § 9.1-141, except such person may serve as a driver of an armored car for not more than 90 days while completing compulsory minimum training standards, provided such person does not possess or have access to a firearm while serving as a driver. 1976, c. 737, § 54-729.29; 1977, c. 376, § 54.1-1902; 1978, cc. 28, 428; 1984, cc. 57, 779; 1988, cc. 48, 765; 1991, c. 589; 1992, c. 578, § 9-183.3; 1994, cc. 45, 47, 810; 1995, c. 79; 1996, c. 541; 1998, cc. 53, 122, 807; 2000, c. 26; 2001, cc. 821, 844; 2002, cc. 578, 597; 2003, c. 124; 2004, c. 470; 2008, c. 638; 2015, c. 202; 2016, c. 561; 2018, c. 214.

Va. Code § 9.1-140

§ 9.1-140. Exceptions from article; training requirements for out-of-state central station dispatchers.The provisions of this article shall not apply to: 1. An officer or employee of the United States, the Commonwealth, or a political subdivision of either, while the officer or employee is performing his official duties; 2. A person, except a private investigator as defined in § 9.1-138, engaged exclusively in the business of obtaining and furnishing information regarding an individual's financial rating or a person engaged in the business of a consumer reporting agency as defined by the Federal Fair Credit Reporting Act; 3. An attorney licensed to practice in Virginia or his employees; 4. The legal owner of personal property which has been sold under any security agreement while performing acts relating to the repossession of such property; 5. A person receiving compensation for private employment as a security officer, or receiving compensation under the terms of a contract, express or implied, as a security officer, who is also a law-enforcement officer as defined by § 9.1-101 and employed by the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions; 6. Any person appointed under § 46.2-2003 or 56-353 while engaged in the employment contemplated thereunder, unless they have successfully completed training mandated by the Department; 7. Persons who conduct investigations as a part of the services being provided as a claims adjuster, by a claims adjuster who maintains an ongoing claims adjusting business, and any natural person employed by the claims adjuster to conduct investigations for the claims adjuster as a part of the services being provided as a claims adjuster; 8. Any natural person otherwise required to be registered pursuant to § 9.1-139 who is employed by a business that is not a private security services business for the performance of his duties for his employer. Any such employee, however, who carries a firearm and is in direct contact with the general public in the performance of his duties shall possess a valid registration with the Department as required by this article; 9. Persons, sometimes known as "shoppers," employed to purchase goods or services solely for the purpose of determining or assessing the efficiency, loyalty, courtesy, or honesty of the employees of a business establishment; 10. Licensed or registered private investigators from other states entering Virginia during an investigation originating in their state of licensure or registration when the other state offers similar reciprocity to private investigators licensed and registered by the Commonwealth; 11. Unarmed regular employees of telephone public service companies where the regular duties of such employees consist of protecting the property of their employers and investigating the usage of telephone services and equipment furnished by their employers, their employers' affiliates, and other communications common carriers; 12. An end user; 13. A material supplier who renders advice concerning the use of products sold by an electronics security business and who does not provide installation, monitoring, repair or maintenance services for electronic security equipment; 14. Members of the security forces who are directly employed by electric public service companies; 15. Any professional engineer or architect licensed in accordance with Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 to practice in the Commonwealth, or his employees; 16. Any person who only performs telemarketing or schedules appointments without access to information concerning the electronic security equipment purchased by an end user; 17. Any certified forensic scientist employed as an expert witness for the purpose of possibly testifying as an expert witness; 18. Members of the security forces who are directly employed by shipyards engaged in the construction, design, overhaul or repair of nuclear vessels for the United States Navy; 19. An out-of-state central station dispatcher employed by a private security services business licensed by the Department provided he (i) possesses and maintains a valid license, registration, or certification as a central station dispatcher issued by the regulatory authority of the state in which he performs the monitoring duties and (ii) has submitted his fingerprints to the regulatory authority for the conduct of a national criminal history records search; 20. Any person, or independent contractor or employee of any person, who (i) exclusively contracts directly with an agency of the federal government to conduct background investigations and (ii) possesses credentials issued by such agency authorizing such person, subcontractor or employee to conduct background investigations; 21. Any person whose occupation is limited to the technical reconstruction of the cause of accidents involving motor vehicles as defined in § 46.2-100, regardless of whether the information resulting from the investigation is to be used before a court, board, officer, or investigative committee, and who is not otherwise a private investigator as defined in § 9.1-138; 22. Retail merchants performing locksmith services, selling locks or engaged in key cutting activities conducted at the business location who do not represent themselves to the general public as locksmiths; 23. Law-enforcement, fire, rescue, emergency service personnel, or other persons performing locksmith services in an emergency situation without compensation and who do not represent themselves to the general public as locksmiths; 24. Motor vehicle dealers as defined in § 46.2-1500 performing locksmith services who do not represent themselves to the general public as locksmiths; 25. Taxicab and towing businesses performing locksmith services that do not represent themselves to the general public as locksmiths; 26. Contractors licensed under Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 performing locksmith services when acting within the scope of such license who do not represent themselves to the general public as locksmiths; 27. Any contractor as defined in § 54.1-1100 (i) who is exempt from the licensure requirements of Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1, (ii) where the total value referred to in a single contract or project is less than $1,000, (iii) when the performance of locksmith services is ancillary to the work performed by such contractor, and (iv) who does not represent himself to the general public as a locksmith; 28. Any individual, employed by a retail merchant that also holds a private security services business license as a locksmith, where such individual's duties relating to such license are limited to key cutting and the key cutting is performed under the direct supervision of the licensee; 29. Any individual engaged in (i) computer or digital forensic services as defined in § 9.1-138 or in the acquisition, review, or analysis of digital or computer-based information, in order to obtain or furnish information for evidentiary purposes or to provide expert testimony before a court, or (ii) network or system vulnerability testing, including network scans and risk assessment and analysis of computers connected to a network; 30. Employees and sales representatives of a retailer of electronic security equipment, provided such employees and sales representatives (i) sell electronic security equipment at a store location, online, or by telephone, but not at the end user's premises; (ii) are not electronic security technicians; and (iii) do not have access to end user confidential information regarding the end user's electronic security equipment; or 31. A certified public accountant authorized to practice in the Commonwealth under Chapter 44 (§ 54.1-4400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 or his employees. 1976, c. 737, § 54-729.28; 1977, c. 376, § 54.1-1901; 1981, c. 538; 1983, c. 569; 1984, c. 375; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 578, § 9-183.2; 1994, cc. 45, 810; 1995, c. 79; 1996, cc. 541, 543, 576; 1997, cc. 80, 204; 2000, c. 26; 2001, cc. 388, 650, 821, 844; 2002, cc. 578, 597; 2003, c. 136; 2008, c. 638; 2009, c. 225; 2011, c. 263; 2013, c. 411; 2014, c. 214.

Va. Code § 9.1-140.1

§ 9.1-140.1. Registration; waiver of examination; locksmiths.Notwithstanding any other provision of this article, unless an applicant is found by the Board to have engaged in any act that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action, the Board shall issue a registration, without examination, to any applicant who provides satisfactory proof to the Board of having been actively and continuously providing locksmith services immediately prior to July 1, 2008, for at least two years. 2008, c. 638.

Va. Code § 9.1-141

§ 9.1-141. Powers of Board relating to private security services business.A. The Board may adopt regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), establishing compulsory minimum, entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards for persons employed by private security services businesses in classifications defined in § 9.1-138. The regulations may include provisions delegating to the Board's staff the right to inspect the facilities and programs of persons conducting training to ensure compliance with the law and Board regulations. In establishing compulsory training standards for each of the classifications defined in § 9.1-138, the Board shall be guided by the policy of this section to secure the public safety and welfare against incompetent or unqualified persons engaging in the activities regulated by this section and Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of this chapter. The compulsory minimum, entry-level, and in-service training standards for an unarmed security officer, armed security officer, courier, security canine handler, and alarm respondent shall include a training requirement on recognizing and reporting instances of suspected human trafficking. The regulations may provide for partial exemption from such compulsory, entry-level training for persons having previous employment as law-enforcement officers for a local, state or the federal government, to include units of the United States armed forces, or for persons employed in classifications defined in § 9.1-138. However, no such exemption shall be granted to persons having less than five continuous years of such employment, nor shall an exemption be provided for any person whose employment as a law-enforcement officer or whose employment as a private security services business employee was terminated because of his misconduct or incompetence. The regulations may include separate provisions for full exemption from compulsory training for persons having previous training that meets or exceeds the minimum training standards and has been approved by the Department. However, no such exemption shall be granted to persons whose employment as a private security services business employee was terminated because of his misconduct or incompetence. No regulation adopted by the Board shall prevent any person employed by an electronic security business, other than an alarm respondent, or as a locksmith from carrying a firearm in the course of his duties when such person carries with him a valid concealed handgun permit issued in accordance with Article 6.1 (§ 18.2-307.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2. B. The Board may enter into an agreement with other states for reciprocity or recognition of private security services businesses and their employees, duly licensed by such states. The agreements shall allow those businesses and their employees to provide and perform private security services within the Commonwealth to secure the public safety and welfare against incompetent, unqualified, unscrupulous, or unfit persons engaging in the activities of private security services businesses. C. The Board may adopt regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) to secure the public safety and welfare against incompetent, unqualified, unscrupulous, or unfit persons engaging in the activities of private security services businesses that: 1. Establish the qualifications of applicants for registration, certification, or licensure under Article 4 (§ 9.1-138) of this chapter; 2. Examine, or cause to be examined, the qualifications of each applicant for registration, certification, or licensure, including when necessary the preparation, administration, and grading of examinations; 3. Certify qualified applicants for private security training schools and instructors or license qualified applicants as practitioners of private security services businesses; 4. Levy and collect fees for registration, certification, or licensure and renewal that are sufficient to cover all expenses for administration and operation of a program of registration, certification, and licensure for private security services businesses and training schools; 5. Are necessary to ensure continued competency, and to prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners and effectively administer the regulatory system adopted by the Board; 6. Receive complaints concerning the conduct of any person whose activities are regulated by the Board, to conduct investigations, and to take appropriate disciplinary action if warranted; and 7. Revoke, suspend or fail to renew a registration, certification, or license for just cause as enumerated in Board regulations. D. In adopting its regulations under subsections A and C, the Board shall seek the advice of the Private Security Services Advisory Board established pursuant to § 9.1-143. 1981, c. 632, § 9-182; 1990, c. 354; 1992, c. 578; 1994, cc. 45, 335, 810; 1995, c. 79; 1998, cc. 122, 807; 2001, c. 844; 2009, c. 375; 2013, c. 69; 2014, c. 32; 2024, c. 367.

Va. Code § 9.1-143

§ 9.1-143. Private Security Services Advisory Board; membership.The Private Security Services Advisory Board is established as an advisory board within the meaning of § 2.2-2100, in the executive branch of state government. The Private Security Services Advisory Board shall consist of 15 members as follows: two members shall be private investigators; two shall be representatives of electronic security businesses; two members shall be representatives of locksmith businesses; three shall be representatives of private security services businesses providing security officers, armed couriers, detector canine handlers, or security canine handlers; one shall be a representative of a private security services business providing armored car personnel; one shall be a representative of a private security services business involving personal protection specialists; one shall be a certified private security services instructor; one shall be a special conservator of the peace appointed pursuant to § 19.2-13; one shall be a licensed bail bondsman and one shall be a representative of law enforcement. The Private Security Services Advisory Board shall be appointed by the Criminal Justice Services Board and shall advise the Criminal Justice Services Board on all issues relating to regulation of private security services businesses. 1976, c. 737, § 54-729.30; 1977, c. 376, § 54.1-1904; 1984, cc. 57, 779; 1985, c. 448; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 578, § 9-183.5; 1994, c. 810; 1997, c. 79; 2001, c. 844; 2003, c. 922; 2004, c. 460; 2008, c. 638; 2009, c. 375.

Va. Code § 9.1-149

§ 9.1-149. Unlicensed activity prohibited; penalty.A. No person: 1. Required to possess a registration under subsection C of § 9.1-139 shall be employed by a private security services business, except as provided in this article, as armored car personnel, courier, armed security officer, security canine handler, personal protection specialist, private investigator, alarm respondent, central station dispatcher, electronic security sales representative or electronic security technician without possessing a valid registration. 2. Licensed or required to be licensed under subsection A of § 9.1-139 shall employ or otherwise utilize, except as provided in this article, as armored car personnel, courier, armed security officer, security canine handler, personal protection specialist, private investigator, alarm respondent, central station dispatcher, electronic security sales representative or electronic security technician, any person not possessing a valid registration. 3. Required to possess an instructor certification under subsection D of § 9.1-139 shall provide mandated instruction, except as provided in § 9.1-141 and Board regulations, without possessing a valid private security instructor certification. 4. Certified or required to be certified as a private security services training school under subsection B of § 9.1-139 shall employ or otherwise utilize, except as provided in § 9.1-141 and Board regulations, as a private security instructor, any person not possessing a valid instructor certification. B. No compliance agent employed or otherwise utilized by a person licensed or required to be licensed under subsection A of § 9.1-139 shall: 1. Employ or otherwise utilize as an unarmed security officer, except as provided in this article, any individual for whom the compliance agent does not possess documentary evidence of compliance with, or exemption from, the compulsory minimum training standards established by the Board for unarmed security officers and before January 1, 2003, maintain documentary evidence that an investigation to determine suitability has been conducted. 2. Employ or otherwise utilize as an electronic security technician's assistant, except as provided in this article, any individual for whom the compliance agent does not possess documentary evidence of compliance with, or exemption from, the compulsory minimum training standards established by the Board for electronic security technician's assistants. C. Any person convicted of a violation of subsections A or B shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. 1976, c. 737, § 54-729.34; 1980, c. 425, § 54.1-1908; 1988, cc. 48, 765; 1992, c. 578, § 9-183.9; 1994, cc. 45, 810; 1995, c. 79; 1998, cc. 122, 807; 2001, c. 844; 2002, cc. 578, 597.

The law belongs to the people. Georgia v. Public.Resource.Org, 590 U.S. (2020)